Was Slavery and the Oppression of Blacks revenge for The Moors?

Mowgli

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it wasn't our people who owned them


if the arabs did deals with african nations, thats on them, but the jews in africa faced their own persecution from the arabs africans and eventually europeans
You asked the question.. :mindblown:
 
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Mowgli

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Moor doesn't mean black. There was a time when it did, but as time went on the name meant all kind of terms.There are hella pictures on the net that show the moors fair skinned and tan skinned. as somewere depicted black ,



moors_in_europe_by_al_brazyly-d38vpv1.jpg



moor_painting3.jpg


heres your black ones now



3985235_f260.jpg
The original meaning is black, you've just acknowledged that and that the meaning was changed.

Just like the meaning of the word continent changed over time to include europe.
 
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Sensei

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I'm lost. Is that @Sensei guy a Cac or just a self righteous c00n?

Wait Imma self righteous c00n , because I don't fall for that fake ass aslamalakum Moor shyt. You got me fukked up.

The whole moor shyt is dumb, but obviously you being a sheep follow along with any dumb shyt.

The original meaning is black, you've just acknowledged that and that the meaning was changed.

Just like the meaning of the word continent changed over time to include europe.

You're using circular logic, its obsolete that the original term meant black when the term Moor was used in time periods in which it meant any one darker skinned than an European(Middle Easterners and Turks),the term Moor was used in periods for any one was a muslim , that being some one black or white.

Imma ease back on this.
 

JamilALAmin

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Wait Imma self righteous c00n , because I don't fall for that fake ass aslamalakum Moor shyt. You got me fukked up.

The whole moor shyt is dumb, but obviously you being a sheep follow along with any dumb shyt.

I would just hope that you look for holes in that bullshyt ass white man's history with the same vigor and effort that you do with ours. Something tells me you don't tho
 

Mowgli

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Wait Imma self righteous c00n , because I don't fall for that fake ass aslamalakum Moor shyt. You got me fukked up.

The whole moor shyt is dumb, but obviously you being a sheep follow along with any dumb shyt.



You're using circular logic, its obsolete that the original term meant black when the term Moor was used in time periods in which it meant any one darker skinned than an European(Middle Easterners and Turks),the term Moor was used in periods for any one was a muslim , that being some one black or white.

Imma ease back on this.
Personally, i dont think being on the moors dikks is all that important but its worth acknowledging that an african living in the 6th and 7th century would be regarded as a moor. I think you're making it a bigger deal then it is :manny:

Black Africans have Moorish history. Identifying as a Moor in 2014 i feel isnt necessary.
 
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The Burger King

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Moor doesn't mean black. There was a time when it did, but as time went on the name meant all kind of terms.There are hella pictures on the net that show the moors fair skinned and tan skinned. as somewere depicted black ,



moors_in_europe_by_al_brazyly-d38vpv1.jpg



moor_painting3.jpg


heres your black ones now



3985235_f260.jpg

Cause Europeans never changed the images of black people to make them look anything but black, right? :mjlol:
I bet you also deny the fact that Napoleon bashed the noses off of Egyptian statues.
 
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2stains

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I can concur with some of this, the name Moor was used for anyone who was muslim, and that included people who were Iraqi,Turkish,Syrian,Arabian, Arabic North Africans etc. But its true the name Moor was usually used for people of dark skin and a dark hue but later on the term Moor was used for anyone that was muslim.


If the term Moor only referred to muslims,why were so many Black CHRISTIANS referred to as Moors too? Like St. Benedict The Moor pictured below who has statues in his name in CHRISTIAN churches around the world.
ur5193e20c.png
 

archer24

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They also killed thousands of white men and made the women slaves :lupe: They was pawging in medieval times :lupe:

:sas1:

The Arabic word Harem derives its original spelling and meaning from the Egyptian word harim, meaning ‘women’. In Egypt, A harem was simply the place where women lived. Any middle class home would have a harem, or women's room, where unmarried female relatives and servants would sleep. One would expect the king's palace to have similar facilities. There was, of course, a difference. The king had several palaces and so he needed several harems. It took a very large number of people to keep each palace functioning smoothly and so we would expect appropriately large harems. Even a half dozen women in the harem of a private residence could easily be integrated into the social and economic system of the rest of the house, but royal harems were so large that they took on a life of their own. Each harem needed its own estate, consisting of land and peasants to produce food for everyone and enough of a surplus to pay for all of the other necessities. Such a system would require its own officials and administrators, male of course, to keep everything running smoothly, but there is no evidence to suggest and no reason to believe that any of these men were eunuchs.

With the advent of Islam, and then the Turks, certain things changed. Under Islamic law, a man can have as many wives as he can support, with the traditional number topping out at around four. However, concubines were unlimited and many harems grew into the thousands. Historically, the concubine was frequently voluntary (by the woman and/or her family's arrangement), as it provided a measure of economic security for the woman involved. The Sultan's favorites, and the rest of his concubines main function was to entertain the Sultan in the bedchamber.

An Odalisque was not a concubine of the harem, Odalisques were ranked at the bottom of the social stratification of a harem, serving not the sultan, but rather, his concubines and wives as personal chambermaids. Odalisques were usually slaves given as gifts to the sultan, although some Georgian and Caucasian families urged their daughters to enter a harem as an odalisque, hoping that they might become a palace concubine, favored slave, or wife of the sultan. Generally, an odalisque was never seen by the sultan, but instead remained under the direct supervision of his mother or chief Wife. If an odalisque was of extraordinary beauty or had exceptional talents in dancing or singing, she would be trained as a possible concubine. If selected, an odalisque trained as a concubine would serve the sultan sexually, and only after such sexual contact would she change in status, becoming thenceforth a concubine. In the Ottoman Empire, concubines encountered the sultan only once—unless she was especially skilled in dance, singing, or the sexual arts, and thus gained his attention. If a concubine's contact with the sultan resulted in the birth of a son, she would become one of his wives.

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:sas2:
 

BaggerofTea

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the moors are responsible for passing the route to the europeans so no.

and fukk them c00n ass moors, selling their african brothers that didnt convert to islam.

Never really got why people still give a fukk about them.

They would have certainly sold my ass or I would have to be on some slick shyt to avoid it
 

IVS

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Can we just establish that these people did not refer to themselves as Moors and that the word is an exonym. Now the question is, who were the people who applied and popularized this exonym and where did the word come from?

There were numerous words used to describe "black" that were applied to the peoples of the "African" continent by outsiders that we still use today. Niger, Maur\Moor, Aethiops, Sudan and the people have adopted the name. The Latinized "Berbers" who once dwelled in North Africa are responsible for the adoption of the word Niger into Latin. But it was the Greco-Roman Byzantines who are responsible for the term Maurus\Mavros (maurus is the latin adopted form).

For it is only in the Greek language that mavros\mauros means black\dark. The only other language I can find a similar term used to refer to "blacks" is in Turkish who have a term morarmış which means bruised and\or "black and blue" and when you separate the word you find that mor = purple, mor(ar) = the purple, mis = are, and it roughly translates into "are the purple." Also, in the Greek there are mavros\maurus grapes which are described as black\purple. So the term obviously applied to a deep dark person.

It's all so interesting when you think about it. Especially when you consider that the Turks conquered Greco-Roman Byzantium based out of what we now call Turkey seated in Istanbul, aka Byzas, later changed to Constantino-polis. It's quite possible they adopted the word Mor(ar) from the Turkish tribes. This could explain why Aethiopian (burned face) was the term used by the Greeks in antiquity and later replaced with Mavros\Maurus, removing the Greco-Roman suffix -os\us leaving Mo(o)r.

Just my musings. The would also help explain why nobody else in Europe uses Moor, but instead have words like serna\cerna\chernyy (mainly Eastern Europeans and Russians), schwarz\zwart (Deutsch), musta (Finnish, Estonian). Only the Greco-Romans have Mavros\Maurus.
 
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mcdivit85

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I contemplated this on many occassions. Still do sometimes.

Let's be clear, the Moors did not enslave or subjugate Europeans in the same manner that Europeans did to Africans. So, we're not talking eye for an eye. The Moors developed Europe and brought it out of the Dark Ages. While Europeans brought alot of backwardsness and destruction to Africa which halted and regressed African societies.

Also, the Moorish domination was not one of "my way or the highway" iron-fisted leadership. The Moors never made Europeans convert to any religion by force. The Moors brought education, culture, architecture, medicine, proper bathing practices and all forms of civilization to a backwards Europe that had their kings living no better than a Moorish horse in a barn. In fact, one of the reason Europe was so rife with plague was because Europeans would live among their livestock and cattle. And they would not bathe themselves reguarlarly.

The Moors changed that by building grand public bath houses and pushed clean living and daily bathing.

Even with all the good the Moors did in Europe, the European mind is one that is one from the ice and coldness of Europe. Vastly different than the mind of the African born in the richest and most plentiful continent the world has ever seen. With that in mind, the European mind is obsessed with control and domination. As Dr. John Henrik Clarke once said, "If the European cannot control something, he will destroy it rather than share it."

Historically, the remnants of the remaining Moors were finally kicked of their stronghold, Spain, in 1492 as Queen Isabella and King Ferdinand married and joined the kingdoms and Castille and Aragon. This is why this marriage is of such signifigance historically because it signaled the end of the Moorish occupation of Europe, namely Spain.

That same year, 1492, is when Isabella and Ferdinand commissioned a sailor by the name of Cristobal Colombo, an Italian better known as Christopher Columbus, to sail to the Americas on behalf of the Spanish Crown. The voyage of Christopher Columbus signaled the antecedents to the Atlantic Slave Trade.

Peace
 

Sensei

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Can we just establish that these people did not refer to themselves as Moors and that the word is an exonym. Now the question is, who were the people who applied and popularized this exonym and where did the word come from?

There were numerous words used to describe "black" that were applied to the peoples of the "African" continent by outsiders that we still use today. Niger, Maur\Moor, Aethiops, Sudan and the people have adopted the name. The Latinized "Berbers" who once dwelled in North Africa are responsible for the adoption of the word Niger into Latin. But it was the Greco-Roman Byzantines who are responsible for the term Maurus\Mavros (maurus is the latin adopted form).

For it is only in the Greek language that mavros\mauros means black\dark. The only other language I can find a similar term used to refer to "blacks" is in Turkish who have a term morarmış which means bruised and\or "black and blue" and when you separate the word you find that mor = purple, mor(ar) = the purple, mis = are, and it roughly translates into "are the purple." Also, in the Greek there are mavros\maurus grapes which are described as black\purple. So the term obviously applied to a deep dark person.

It's all so interesting when you think about it. Especially when you consider that the Turks conquered Greco-Roman Byzantium based out of what we now call Turkey seated in Istanbul, aka Byzas, later changed to Constantino-polis. It's quite possible they adopted the word Mor(ar) from the Turkish tribes. This could explain why Aethiopian (burned face) was the term used by the Greeks in antiquity and later replaced with Mavros\Maurus, removing the Greco-Roman suffix -os\us leaving Mo(o)r.

Just my musings. The would also help explain why nobody else in Europe uses Moor, but instead have words like serna\cerna\chernyy (mainly Eastern Europeans and Russians), schwarz\zwart (Deutsch), musta (Finnish, Estonian). Only the Greco-Romans have Mavros\Maurus.

They definitely didn't go by the term Moor , they went by the names according to their dynasties and their fuedlal lords/caliphates they aligned to. Those names would be the ,Ommayads,Almohads,ETC.Those are the names they called themselves. And the fact is Ommyads composed of a great many people ,from what is now the Syria,Iraq,and Palestine to what is now in North Africa. And even in then during that period post-Roman era North Africa had miscegenated so bad., a lot of them basically looked like the North Africans you see today. .
 
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