Was Slavery and the Oppression of Blacks revenge for The Moors?

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Find me one arab person who claims to be a moor

The moors ruled europe and what the white man calls the dark ages
the renaissance is when they regained power, which why the works of Shakespare made during that time period had black characters referred to has moors
 

Sensei

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Wrong. The Almoravids were very much Black.


The Almoravids are just one part of the Moors. There were the Almohads.,Almoravids, Abbassids,and Ommayads who took control of Spain. But many of the Almoravids were from North Africa who had already been stamped out with Roman ,Turkish and white Berber descendants. Not to mention the Ommyads were a group of people that stretched from modern day Morocco,Algeria, Tunisia, Palestine ,Syria, Iraq and the Arabian peninsula. The Ummayads were universal dynasty who beleved that Umar and the descendants should be the Caliphate

A few is three. I think you need to do more research. Arabs were taking a large number of african women as concubines and having children with them that they then had working for their interests. Arabs were buying millions of slaves, having them guard their trade outposts in Africa, serving them domestically and putting them in their armies for battle. A few, is wrong. What they did though, in the service of arabs is all real.
A few would mean not more than most in the post. Children of concubines does not signify legitimate lineage to the fathers and of an ethnic groups. Concubines also came from Turkey .Albania and all over.

Arabs had alot of slaves from all over I don't get your point, Slave were even people of Eastern European descent, henceforth the name Slavs.The fact that they imported slaves into North Africa even tells you the disconnect these Arabs had with the local African people,which had the blackness breded out of them by this time.


Find me one arab person who claims to be a moor

The moors ruled europe and what the white man calls the dark ages
the renaissance is when they regained power, which why the works of Shakespare made during that time period had black characters referred to has moors

Find me one black person who calls themselves a Negro or Colored. Of course they don't call themselves Moor but the fact is Europeans called themselves that. Besides Moors only rulled parts of Spain,Italy,and Greece. So people need to get out of this Moor Propaganda.
 

Mowgli

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The Almoravids are just one part of the Moors. There were the Almohads.,Almoravids, Abbassids,and Ommayads who took control of Spain. But many of the Almoravids were from North Africa who had already been stamped out with Roman ,Turkish and white Berber descendants. Not to mention the Ommyads were a group of people that stretched from modern day Morocco,Algeria, Tunisia, Palestine ,Syria, Iraq and the Arabian peninsula. The Ummayads were universal dynasty who beleved that Umar and the descendants should be the Caliphate


A few would mean not more than most in the post. Children of concubines does not signify legitimate lineage to the fathers and of an ethnic groups. Concubines also came from Turkey .Albania and all over.

Arabs had alot of slaves from all over I don't get your point, Slave were even people of Eastern European descent, henceforth the name Slavs.The fact that they imported slaves into North Africa even tells you the disconnect these Arabs had with the local African people,which had the blackness breded out of them by this time.
You're downplaying how many africans and half breeds arabs had in their ranks at that time in history and a few, isnt honest. So i guess im saying you're either lying or you dont know what you're talking about :manny:
 
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Because telling the truth here will get you ganged up on

Hint: The moors were primarily North Africans/Arabs


oops

You realize arabs are from eastern europe, turkey you know the ottoman empire, arabs are associated with North Africa

also arab isn't a race it is an ethnic group

there's a difference between a chaldean and a jordanian

the same reason whites are with south africa, that wasn't always the case
 

Sensei

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Stamped out? Those groups were enslaved :mjlol:



Most of Berber ancestry is eb1

nikka stop


Stop trying to be some fukking loud mouth, nikkaS IS DUMB to believe some Moor fantasy.Most Berber ancestry is Eb1 lol.

nikka you barely Know genetics. Its E3b1 and the subclade has all kind dilutions.

You don't make any sense, how are you saying the Moors where in North Africa and ruled the land but they were enslaved.


North Africas population underwent a drastic population shift in the past 2000 years,when the Romans and Barbarians came the whole demographic of the area changed.
 

Poitier

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Stop trying to be some fukking loud mouth, nikkaS IS DUMB to believe some Moor fantasy.Most Berber ancestry is Eb1 lol.

nikka you barely Know genetics. Its E3b1 and the subclade has all kind dilutions.

You don't make any sense, how are you saying the Moors where in North Africa and ruled the land but they were enslaved.


North Africas population underwent a drastic population shift in the past 2000 years,when the Romans and Barbarians came the whole demographic of the area changed.

Not know the difference between ancestry and admixture :russ:

"the subclade has all kind dilutions." :laff:
 

Sensei

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Not know the difference between ancestry and admixture :russ:

"the subclade has all kind dilutions." :laff:

You shot your own argument you said the Moors ruled the land but the people were enslaved. Yea right.
 

J-Nice

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Okay, I think it's time to break this down so nothing is left in translation.

Moors are an African people period, whether light or black. When we're talking about the Moors, we have to specify the time period. Greco-Roman era Moors were littoral North Africans from Tunisia westward.

Early Islamic Moors were Northern Algerians and Moroccans. Mid Islamic Moors expanded to include western Saharans. For Christian Europe in the early and mid Islamic eras, Moors were any Muslims included in the invasion, conquest, and occupation of Al ~Andalus (Moorish Spain) including any Iberian converts to Islam.

For Christian Europe, on many occasion any African regardless of religion was considered a Moor (black). In modern times, the term Moor is more associated with Mauritanians, Moroccans, and other western Saharans.
 

Sensei

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Okay, I think it's time to break this down so nothing is left in translation.

Moors are an African people period, whether light or black. When we're talking about the Moors, we have to specify the time period. Greco-Roman era Moors were littoral North Africans from Tunisia westward.

Early Islamic Moors were Northern Algerians and Moroccans. Mid Islamic Moors expanded to include western Saharans. For Christian Europe in the early and mid Islamic eras, Moors were any Muslims included in the invasion, conquest, and occupation of Al ~Andalus (Moorish Spain) including any Iberian converts to Islam.

For Christian Europe, on many occasion any African regardless of religion was considered a Moor (black). In modern times, the term Moor is more associated with Mauritanians, Moroccans, and other western Saharans.

I can concur with some of this, the name Moor was used for anyone who was muslim, and that included people who were Iraqi,Turkish,Syrian,Arabian, Arabic North Africans etc. But its true the name Moor was usually used for people of dark skin and a dark hue but later on the term Moor was used for anyone that was muslim.
 

J-Nice

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I can concur with some of this, the name Moor was used for anyone who was muslim, and that included people who were Iraqi,Turkish,Syrian,Arabian, Arabic North Africans etc. But its true the name Moor was usually used for people of dark skin and a dark hue but later on the term Moor was used for anyone that was muslim.

Like I said, it really comes down to the era of the Moors in question. But the term itself was used to describe African people first and foremost (light or black makes no difference). But we need to also understand that this term was not what they used to describe themselves. It was a term applied to them by Europeans. External identification is one thing while self defined is another.
 

KENNY DA COOKER

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THE MASONS KNOW IT...BUT "THEY" REFUSE TO SHOW IT - CHUCK D.


yes and those SAVAGES from Europe were still unappreciative when we took "them" out of the caves of Europe and gave them "light" in the form of 33 degrees

In fact all the appellate SHRINE bodies of freemasonry are a reminder of the historic legacy of the Moors presence throughout Europe...

i.e (order of alahambra...the grotto....m.o.v.p.e.r)

William Harper Bennett founded the Order of Alhambra on February 29, 1904, in Brooklyn, New York as a Catholic fraternal and social association. It was named after the Alhambra, a Moorish palace in Granada, Spain; where the Moors surrendered to Ferdinand and Isabella in 1492, after occupying Spain for almost 800 years. Within sight of the Alhambra’s red towers the saintly Columbus received the first favorable reply to his lifelong prayers for assistance to embark on his voyage of discovery. The Order, in addition to adopting the name of the Moorish palace, uses the colorful Oriental costuming and settings. The emblem of the Order is the red tower of Castile surmounting the crescent of the Saracen typifying the triumph of Christianity over the Moors. The Fez worn by members of the Order has this emblem as its prominent centerpiece.

santos.jpg



Shriners-lg.jpg
 

Mowgli

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around what time period did this occur, and who were they enslaved by?
I mean the shyt is all over the place. Cacs enslaved their own people and sold them off to whoever wanted them and this included black people in north africa indians and arabs. Cacs were captured as slaves during their battles into the african continent and arabian penninsula's. Arabs in their flight out of the desert captured cacs, kept them as slaves and sold them off. White slavery largely ended in the 12th century so before that the real question is, when were they not enslaved.
 

Sensei

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Like I said, it really comes down to the era of the Moors in question. But the term itself was used to describe African people first and foremost (light or black makes no difference). But we need to also understand that this term was not what they used to describe themselves. It was a term applied to them by Europeans. External identification is one thing while self defined is another.

The term was originally used for Mauritanians in the Roman Province of Mauritania ,they were black african at the time. Later on during roman and Vandal periods, the black people in the land were breeded out and vanquished. .

The term MOOR is not exclusively used for African people. It was an ambiguous terms that even described some Middle Easterners who were muslim.Europeans called many people dark skin, even today some people still consider Moroccans and North Africans Dark Skin.

Just take a look at the dictionary definition.

http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/moor
Moor

[moo r] Spell Syllables
noun
1.
a Muslim of the mixed Berber and Arab people inhabiting NW Africa.
2.
a member of this group that invaded Spain in the 8th century a.d. andoccupied it until 1492.
 
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