How did the Bible know about Neanderthals before Scientist did?

[Taadow]

@iLLaV3
@Czar

Just awnser me this:

If the reason for the Great Flood was the violence caused by the Nephilim...
...why would God let the Nephilim survive it?


Furthermore...how could Nephilim reproduce...to where they had sons?
They were mutants...and there were no female Nephilim...so if Anak was one...how did he have "sons"?

 

[LionofJudah]

so yall really believe that a moment that was so important in Genesis to cause God to flood the Earth is just a 'figure of speech' and a 'general' term to describe the enemies of God's Children?

God don't play around like that brehs, you all know that. If he brought them up after the flood it was for a reason. In fact the Fallen Angels are mentioned with Satan a lot more than just Numbers & Genesis guys. These dudes arrived for a purpose & it wasn't a good thing either.

Do you believe that Ahiman, Sheshai, and Talmai were the only 'Nephilim' left on the planet?

 

[Dafunkdoc_Unlimited]

not sure where you got that
but in Hebrew the word nephilim is from the root nun-peh-lamed, which means to fall. The meaning of the word nephilim, at its simplest interpretation, is the fallen ones or the fallible ones.

Nephelim is actually an Aramaic word that means 'giants'. There is no Hebrew equivalent/root. The closest you'll find is naphal which means 'to fall' ('fallen ones' would be spelled nephulim). The only way to get nephelim from naphal using Hebrew morphology is to presume a Hebrew noun spelled naphil and pluralize it. This noun does not exist in biblical Hebrew.​

 

[MostReal]

@iLLaV3
@Czar

Just awnser me this:

If the reason for the Great Flood was the violence caused by the Nephilim...
...why would God let the Nephilim survive it?


Furthermore...how could Nephilim reproduce...to where they had sons?
They were mutants...and there were no female Nephilim...so if Anak was one...how did he have "sons"?

I answered this already but I'll do it again. These Angels were cast down just like Satan because of disobedience. If you are not doing the work of the Lord as an Angel, you are a Demon for the Devil.

Look at Job 2:1
Again there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the Lord, and Satan also came among them to present himself before the Lord.

These guys are around because of the Sin of Adam, just like Satan still has a role on Earth. As you see in the above scripture, these dudes were rolling with Satan. They were his boys.

As for reproduction, the Angles have the ability to take human form and have sex with women. This was described in Genesis. Even Good Angels can do this (take human form). In Sodom and Gomorrah, when the Angels came down to visit Lot...folks were trying to have sex with them then. They had to fight them off to keep humans from basically raping the Good Angels. Genesis 19:4-12

Nephelim is actually an Aramaic word that means 'giants'. There is no Hebrew equivalent/root. The closest you'll find is naphal which means 'to fall'. The only way to get nephelim from naphal using Hebrew morphology is to presume a Hebrew noun spelled naphil and pluralize it. This noun does not exist in biblical Hebrew.​

thanks for the correction but the definition I used is still the same 'to fall'

 

[LionofJudah]

I answered this already but I'll do it again. These Angels were cast down just like Satan because of disobedience. If you are not doing the work of the Lord as an Angel, you are a Demon for the Devil.

Look at Job 2:1
Again there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the Lord, and Satan also came among them to present himself before the Lord.

These guys are around because of the Sin of Adam, just like Satan still has a role on Earth. As you see in the above scripture, these dudes were rolling with Satan. They were his boys.

As for reproduction, the Angles have the ability to take human form and have sex with women. This was described in Genesis. Even Good Angels can do this (take human form). In Sodom and Gomorrah, when the Angels came down to visit Lot...folks were trying to have sex with them then. They had to fight them off to keep humans from basically raping the Good Angels. Genesis 19:4-12




thanks for the correction but the definition I used is still the same 'to fall'

So were these 'fallen angels' who you think are the sons of God good or evil at this point in Job 2:1?

 

[Czar]

Are you trying to prove 2 Esdras fake, or are you telling us what's canonical and what's not? Esther is obviously canon because not only is it found in the OT, it's also found in the Apocrypha. It also doesn't go against the other scriptures which we KNOW to be God-inspired in anyway. I can write a true statement referenced from the OT on a piece of parchment, but it doesn't mean the rest of what I write is God-inspired, nor was anything on the parchment in general God-inspired in reality. It was just a single true statement referenced from something we know to be true. I said all of that to say a true statement doesn't make a whole document true. Point blank.

Yet Esther was not found in the dead sea scrolls. It was in the Septuagint however. Yet you reject the Septuagint, even though it was the Old Testament the writers of the New Testament used.

And I'm not trying to prove anything. I'm simply pointing out the stupidity in your statement.

As for 2 Esdras. Jawn is faker than a 3 dollar bill.

2 Esdras - Bible Overview - BibleWise

2 Esdras
Scholars agree that 2 Esdras is actually a compilation of three separate works, none of which have anything to do with the time of Ezra. The prophet, Ezra, is a visionary in these writings. In the first section, chapters 1-2, Ezra basically affirms the rejection of the Jews in favor of the Christian Church. It is believed that Christians wrote these chapters themselves, probably around the middle of the second century CE. The second section is the longest and is comprised of chapters 3-14. This is an apocalyptic composition that addresses God’s plans for the future of Israel. It is believed that Jews wrote this piece around 100 CE. The last two chapters, 15-16, are the third section. This was also written by Christians and is thought to be even later than the first section, possibly written in the third century CE. It is comprised of oracles of doom addressed to the enemies of God’s people who are now represented by the Christian Church

2 Esdras - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Critics question whether even the main body of the book, not counting the chapters that exist only in the Latin version and in Greek fragments, has a single author. Kalisch, De Faye, and Charles hold that no fewer than five people worked on the text. However, Gunkel points to the unity in character and holds that the book is written by a single author; it has also been suggested that the author of II Esdras wrote the Syriac Apocalypse of Baruch.[16] In any case, the two texts may date from about the same time, and one almost certainly depends on the other.[16]

Critics have widely debated the origin of the book. Hidden under two layers of translation it is impossible to determine if the author was Roman, Alexandrian, or Palestinian.

The scholarly interpretation of the eagle being the Roman Empire (the eagle in the fifth vision, whose heads might be Vespasian, Titus and Domitian if such is the case) and the destruction of the temple would indicate that the probable date of composition lies toward the end of the first century, perhaps 90–96, though some suggest a date as late as 218

But of course, you love it cause it was included into the KJV Apocrypha. Nevermind the fact that King James and his translators were Anglicans, who considered themselves to be the true catholic church. Along with believing in the doctrine of the virgin Mary and considering her to be the "mother of god".

 

[LionofJudah]

Yet Esther was not found in the dead sea scrolls. It was in the Septuagint however. Yet you reject the Septuagint, even though it was the Old Testament the Writers of the New Testament used.

And I'm not trying to prove anything. I'm simply pointing out the stupidity in your statement.

As for 2 Esdras

I made no statement about whether or not where certain books of the Bible were found made them canonical. It seems you're incapable of grasping simple points.

 

[MostReal]

So were these 'fallen angels' who you think are the sons of God good or evil at this point in Job 2:1?

straight up Evil, if you rolling around with Satan...you Evil &

As for more evidence of the Fallen Angels being around look closely at Genesis. It tells you that they will be around even after the days of Noah.

:

Genesis 6:4
There were giants in the earth in those days; and also after that, when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to them, the same became mighty men which were of old, men of renown.

@Czar will you please stop with LionofJudah yall do this all the time. This ain't the thread for that breh

 

[Czar]

I made no statement about whether or not where certain books of the Bible were found made them canonical. It seems you're incapable of grasping simple points.

Breh, the point is, how can you call Enoch fake, when 2 Esdras is super fake?

King James and his translators placed 2 Esdras into the Apocrypha section. Meaning neither he nor they considered it "canonical" enough to be included into the regular section. Think about that.

 

[Taadow]

I answered this already but I'll do it again. These Angels were cast down just like Satan because of disobedience. If you are not doing the work of the Lord as an Angel, you are a Demon for the Devil.

Look at Job 2:1
Again there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the Lord, and Satan also came among them to present himself before the Lord.

These guys are around because of the Sin of Adam, just like Satan still has a role on Earth. As you see in the above scripture, these dudes were rolling with Satan. They were his boys.

As for reproduction, the Angles have the ability to take human form and have sex with women. This was described in Genesis. Even Good Angels can do this (take human form). In Sodom and Gomorrah, when the Angels came down to visit Lot...folks were trying to have sex with them then. They had to fight them off to keep humans from basically raping the Good Angels. Genesis 19:4-12

Here's the thing, though...there's a difference between the "Bad Angels" and the "Nephilim".

"Nephilim" are mutants and half-human. They were not angels - their fathers were.

During the flood, the "Nephilim" were destroyed...not the "angels". They "angels" had to abandon their human forms,
the "Nephilim" did not have that luxury. They were destroyed.

Just like the scripture you quote here in Job, Satan and his road dogs came in...not his road dogs' sons. Because they were dead.

 

[LionofJudah]

straight up Evil, if you rolling around with Satan...you Evil &

As for more evidence of the Fallen Angels being around look closely at Genesis. It tells you that they will be around even after the days of Noah.

:


@Czar will you please stop with LionofJudah yall do this all the time. This ain't the thread for that breh

Except it doesn't say they were with Satan, it says he came 'also among them'. And I guess what I'm getting at is whether or not you equate 'sons of God' in general in the scriptures with being evil?

And don't say 'y'all' do this all the time. He's the fakkit following me around like a schoolgirl who got her virginity took.

 

[Czar]

straight up Evil, if you rolling around with Satan...you Evil &

As for more evidence of the Fallen Angels being around look closely at Genesis. It tells you that they will be around even after the days of Noah.

:


@Czar will you please stop with LionofJudah yall do this all the time. This ain't the thread for that breh

Lol

 

[Czar]

@iLLaV3
@Czar

Just awnser me this:

If the reason for the Great Flood was the violence caused by the Nephilim...
...why would God let the Nephilim survive it?


Furthermore...how could Nephilim reproduce...to where they had sons?
They were mutants...and there were no female Nephilim...so if Anak was one...how did he have "sons"?

You still musta missed the part where I said Nephilim is a general term. Meaning those Nephilim in Genesis 6:4 have NOTHING to do the the Nephilim in Numbers 13:33.

 

[Dafunkdoc_Unlimited]

thanks for the correction but the definition I used is still the same 'to fall'

Yeah, but nephelim didn't exist after the Flood. If you read Genesis 10, you won't find the 'sons of Anak/Anakites' listed in the Nations. Numbers 13:32-33 is a 'false report' by the 10 spies who didn't want to enter the land and that is why they were summarily killed by the same plague in Numbers 14 (designated for 'unbelievers') while Joshua and Caleb were spared.​

 

[Taadow]

You still musta missed the part where I said Nephilim is a general term. Meaning those Nephilim in Genesis 6:4 have NOTHING to do the the Nephilim in Numbers 13:33.

I know that - because the ones they were speaking of in Numbers 13:33 were not really Nephilim.