@2Quik4UHoes
Because they were one of the top exports in the Islamic slave market. There were white slaves in the Islamic version.
Where is your proof that blacks more predominate as slaves during the period before the 19th century?
And how do you explain these sources?
The Middle Ages was clearly the age of the most common slaves of the previous Greco-Roman ecumenon, from central and eastern Europe, from where we get the term slave. Then: "Deprived of most of their sources of white slaves, the Ottomans turned more and more to Africa, which in the course of the nineteenth century came to provide the overwhelming majority of slaves used in Muslim countries from Morocco to Asia” (Lewis, 1990, Race and Slavery in the Middle East, p. 12)
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Except for the Zandj (black slaves) from lower Iraq, no large body of blacks historically linked to the trans-Saharan slave trade existed anywhere in the Arab world ... The high costs of slaves, because of the risks inherent in the desert crossing, which would have not permitted such a massive exodus ...In this connection, it is significant that in the Arabic iconography of the period, the slave merchant was often depicted as a man with a hole in his purse.Until the Crusades the Muslim world drew its slaves from two main sources: Eastern and Central Europe (Slavs) and Turkestan. The Sudan only came third. "
Africa from the seventh to the eleventh century
Where is your evidence that counters this? I'm waiting.
No, the people back then had that idea. Breh, do you think racism began with euro cacs? This shyt goes back to Arabs translating all the classic works and Galen's description of Black Africans in Roman times. That idea was perpetuated through practice, fact is Black men faced the more brutal form of castration because of the sexual stigma attached to them, fact is the perception of Blacks became worse after the Zanj rebellion and influenced literature and ideas from then on.
I never said racism begun with Europeans. I wasn't speaking about racism at all, but the ideal that blacks were always the predominate slaves throughout time when that was never the case until recently.
West Africans also had Middle Eastern slaves. Slavery was not defined by race back then.
No disrespect, but you might want to go back to the drawing board on you're Medieval African history. Slavery and the slave trade has been a part of Africa for ages, it became more of an industry under the Muslims and later the Europeans.
Yet Sahelian kingdoms like Ghana and Mali never really relied on the slave trade. And of course slavery was practice in Africa prior to the Atlantic Slave Trade, but it wasn't large scale like what people like to make it out to be. Especially black slaves in the Trans Sahara Trade which I refuted time and time again. European being slaves was more of an industry for Muslims. European women were the most valued slaves. And I already showed this.
That underlined part made me chuckle, Arabs made sport of slave raids in those parts of Africa, especially at Bornu. Plus West African empires expanded quite a bit, doesn't change that they worked within the market that was dominated by Arab/Muslim influence.
If they were any slave raids near any Sahel kingdoms the raiders would have been crushed. Just ask the Portuguese who tried to slave raid near the Mali Kingdom. Slaves had to be BOUGHT. And also the Trans Sahara Trade was in no shape or form dominated by the Arabs/Middle Eastern not even nomadic Tuaregs who were masters of the Sahara. Berbers and Arabs were under the thumb of Sahelian rulers. The flow of trade and all the resources were DOMINATED by West Africans. They had a monopoly on the trade. Which is why I said they did not DEPEND on the slave trade. Unless you can show me sources of large scale Western Sudanic slaves being exported from kingdoms like Mali. I'll wait.
Why do you think the Malians adopted Islam like they did, they didn't just enthusiastically convert because for one they weren't that devout at first and for two there were still adherents of the old faiths.
Incorrect. Islam was bought down by Berbers through trade. There was no conquest and I already debunked that. Most of the elite of Ghana Empire was Muslim while the average joe was non Muslim. Islam did not come by force to West Africa until the 19th century by Fulani jihadist. There is no proof of Islam coming by force prior. And no disrespect but maybe its YOU that should go back to the drawing board of medieval African history.
Are you seriously trying to sweep shyt under the rug tho? I hope this is just a matter of not knowing cuz apologizing for those sand cac faggits for beginning the downfall of the continent is disgusting.
You're letting your dislike of Arabs/Middle Easterners cloud your judgement in this debate. No one is apologizing and no one is sweeping stuff under the rug. I'm simply looking for facts. You said that the Moors of North Africa enslaved blacks, I asked you for proof because I told you blacks were not a part of the Trans Sahara Slave trade which connected Upper West Africa-North Africa-Mediterranean. I also told you that European slaves were the predominate slaves.
I mean seriously, I named you an example of a group of Black African slaves in the Islamic world that rose up and took over their own shyt and were feared and respected.
Like I said you said Moors the had black slaves. And I said the Trans Sahara Trade did not include blacks until the 19th century long after the Moors. The Zanj black slaves were not linked to the TST and thus they were not linked to the Moors. You bought them up when they were not really apart of this topic. Yes Arabs did enslave them but before we were not talking about Arabs but the Moors.
But we gotta big up Moors because they chopped off black men's shyt and made them glorified secretaries and administrators under the rule over another, or because they bought em and made them soldier slaves for the master's cause. Took away their indigenous culture and gave em sand cac culture just like Africans were taken to America and given euro cac culture. The only redeemable quality about Moorish society and Islamic slavery is that manumission was much easier to come by.
Sources? Also can you explain how the Almoravids who came after still have an indigenous Berber culture and not an Arab one?