Who Is John The Baptist in ISLAM?

[MMS]

Huh? You write 'Ham-Mayim' (i.e., חָם־מַֽיִם, which is grammatically impossible and, anyway, would not mean 'black water' even if it were in its proper construction = מַֽיִם חַמִּים), but link to הַמַּֽיִם (the definite form of מַֽיִם). Also, חָם ḥam is spelled with ח (ḥ) not ה (h), while the unrelated הַמַּֽיִם hamayim is spelled with ה (h) not ח (ḥ).

thats a good catch

so why hamayim instead of just mayim (water)?

or shamayim (heavens) etc

 

[MMS]

Interesting......

And who is ISLAM mocking?

https://www.thecoli.com/threads/how-do-any-non-autistic-ppl-still-believe-in-organized-religion.965335/page-6#post-48745940

 

[Koichos]

thats a good catch

so why hamayim instead of just mayim (water)?

If you are referring to B'réshît 1:2, the initial הַ־ in the noun הַמַּֽיִם is a definite article prefix (i.e., 'the water') as the expression פְּנֵי הַמָּֽיִם p'nei hamayim is the case of a juxtaposed pair (or two nouns in the constructive case), and Hebrew grammar requires that the definite article must be pre-pended to the second of the two nouns only.

As for the opening passage of the Tōrah, the first sentence (1:1-1:3) talks about 'God's creating of the Heaven (הַשָּׁמַֽיִם) and the Earth (הָאָֽרֶץ)' (not '...a heaven and an earth'). The word אֲדָמָה 'adamah actually means 'earth' (written with a lowercase 'e', in other words, the 'ground'), but אֶֽרֶץ 'êrêtz is what we use for this planet (Earth).

or shamayim (heavens) etc

שָׁמַֽיִם shamayim ('heaven') and הַשָּׁמַֽיִם hashamayim ('the heaven') are used more or less interchangeably, and both forms can also be used to mean the 'sky' (as in B'réshît 1:8 וַיִּקְרָא אֱלֹקִים לָֽרָקִֽיעַ שָׁמָֽיִם 'then God named the expanse, sky...' and again in 15:5 וַיֹּֽאמֶר הַבֶּט־נָֽא הַשָּׁמַֽיְמָה '...and [God] said: Please, look onto the sky...).

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By the way, the Hebrew term for 'black water' (מַֽיִם שְׁחֹרִים mayim sh'ḥorim), which does not occur in the T'na"ch, is synonymous with toilet/fecal wastewater (מַֽיִם צוֹאִים mayim tzo'im) in sanitation terminology.

 

[MMS]

If you are referring to B'réshît 1:2, the initial הַ־ in the noun הַמַּֽיִם is a definite article prefix (i.e., 'the water') as the expression פְּנֵי הַמָּֽיִם p'nei hamayim is the case of a juxtaposed pair (or two nouns in the constructive case), and Hebrew grammar requires that the definite article must be pre-pended to the second of the two nouns only.

As for the opening passage of the Tōrah, the first sentence (1:1-1:3) talks about 'God's creating of the Heaven (הַשָּׁמַֽיִם) and the Earth (הָאָֽרֶץ)' (not '...a heaven and an earth'). The word אֲדָמָה 'adamah actually means 'earth' (written with a lowercase 'e', in other words, the 'ground'), but אֶֽרֶץ 'êrêtz is what we use for this planet (Earth).


שָׁמַֽיִם shamayim ('heaven') and הַשָּׁמַֽיִם hashamayim ('the heaven') are used more or less interchangeably, and both forms can also be used to mean the 'sky' (as in B'réshît 1:8 וַיִּקְרָא אֱלֹקִים לָֽרָקִֽיעַ שָׁמָֽיִם 'then God named the expanse, sky...' and again in 15:5 וַיֹּֽאמֶר הַבֶּט־נָֽא הַשָּׁמַֽיְמָה '...and [God] said: Please, look onto the sky...).

-------------
​

By the way, the Hebrew term for 'black water' (מַֽיִם שְׁחֹרִים mayim sh'ḥorim), which does not occur in the T'na"ch, is synonymous with toilet/fecal wastewater (מַֽיִם צוֹאִים mayim tzo'im) in sanitation terminology.

@010101 bitter water

https://www.thecoli.com/threads/who-is-john-the-baptist-in-islam.952849/page-3#post-49267178

 

[010101]

@010101 bitter water

https://www.thecoli.com/threads/who-is-john-the-baptist-in-islam.952849/page-3#post-49267178

sewage*

 

[MMS]

sewage*

loops*

We are living in a world of illusion

its all an illusion until those bills come due.

www.thecoli.com

 

[DoubleClutch]

The Muslims have the Quran. They deal with the teachings and history of that book.

The Torah was giving to the Israelites, which John is on of. John only had dealings with the Israelites. The Arabs was around when John walked the earth and was never brought up in his historical account. So trying to tied in Muslims and Arabs to John now would be foolish.

So you’re buying into the idea of a “race based” theology? Or are you just stating historical fact?

Was there even an idea of “Arabs” at that point (1st centuey CE) in history? There wasn’t an “Arabic” language as we see in the Quran that’s for sure.

Regardless, in religious context, it was just “Jews and non Jews” and we all know since Jesus came that way of thinking was put to rest.

Now from a ARAB/Ishmaelite perspective maybe Muhammad was seen as the “new John” and the Quran became the “gospel” for Muslims

But they would defeat the purpose of Jesus telling commanding his followers with spreading the Gospel to the “ends of the earth”

And it would also make the existence of Arab Christians pre Muhammad problematic