AJaRuleStan
All Star
Ann Coulter(kek) brought up this point recently when she was debating someone and I found it interesting, "The reason we have civil rights laws, racial set asides, affirmative action, is to make up for the legacy of slavery and Jim Crow by Democrats, I might add. It is not for people who just set foot in this country yesterday to piggy back on that very unique history in America and start claiming affirmative action."
First I want to say this, I feel these liberal polices have been terrible for the black community, and all one needs to do to verify this is just compare hard evidence on "the legacy of slavery" with hard evidence on the legacy of liberals policies that started in the 1960s.
But I won't get into that. What I want to know is if the logic behind why blacks needed liberal polices in the first place was due to our unique history in america than why are Hispanics automatically awarded the same treatments? Now, I have heard ppl say, "They're a minority and whitey is racist, so they need the same treatment blacks get regardless of their history being different from blacks". Well, okay, sounds nice. They're non-white, i'll give you that. But the problem with this logic is it doesn't stand up to the test of evidence!
Asians are non-white too, so by any objective measure they're minorities and are out doing Whites in socioeconomic achievements, so logically just being a non-white isn't a valid reason for why Hispanics deserve the polices that Backs have received because of Slavery/Jim crow. Despite this fact Hispanics still portray their "oppression-hood" to be equal to that of Blacks in America, or maybe that's just the Democrat party(kek)
Anyway, in closing, do ppl on the root feel it's okay for Hispanics to piggyback the Black American experience?
First I want to say this, I feel these liberal polices have been terrible for the black community, and all one needs to do to verify this is just compare hard evidence on "the legacy of slavery" with hard evidence on the legacy of liberals policies that started in the 1960s.
But I won't get into that. What I want to know is if the logic behind why blacks needed liberal polices in the first place was due to our unique history in america than why are Hispanics automatically awarded the same treatments? Now, I have heard ppl say, "They're a minority and whitey is racist, so they need the same treatment blacks get regardless of their history being different from blacks". Well, okay, sounds nice. They're non-white, i'll give you that. But the problem with this logic is it doesn't stand up to the test of evidence!
Asians are non-white too, so by any objective measure they're minorities and are out doing Whites in socioeconomic achievements, so logically just being a non-white isn't a valid reason for why Hispanics deserve the polices that Backs have received because of Slavery/Jim crow. Despite this fact Hispanics still portray their "oppression-hood" to be equal to that of Blacks in America, or maybe that's just the Democrat party(kek)
Anyway, in closing, do ppl on the root feel it's okay for Hispanics to piggyback the Black American experience?
