FeverPitch2
Superstar
That was a boycott.I'll give you a better example. In the 1960s, alabama public transit users chose not to take the busses. They obviously faced an immediate loss in the form of no transport, but they gained concessions from the whites in montgomery afterwards; which yeilded more benefits to the black population than they would have had with the original status quo. The white ownership class began to respect the black people that previously supported their institutions once their support was no longer a given.
The no-vote concept is similar
The efficiency of boycotts is rooted in direct financial consequences and is ultimately a short term leverage tactic, somewhat similar to a strike.
If the party being boycotted or a strike levied against can survive the tactic, it renders the tactic ineffective.
Montgomery bus boycott lasted a year.
The withdraw of Black people from the political process would have an effect on only one of the major political parties.
If we are 13% of the American population, and only some of that population votes, how much damage do we actually cause the DNC by withholding?