Your argument isn't anymore valid than a white American using Obama as a evidence of no racism in the us, the way you tell the existence of racism is how money and power is distributed among the groups and just about every country in the Western Hemisphere has a power structure where whites have the money and power and blacks and indigenous people at the bottom, the pattern exists in Paraguay, Mexico and Costa Rica
And as I explained before you don't need to have actual laws to have institutional racism, Instituational racism can and does exist de facto and ex facto that is why you can go to a bunch of countries and see the same racial breakdown of money and power even if they don't have explicit Jim Crow laws
And another point as I mentioned before, using the standard (which consists of tokens and lack of explicit racial laws) that you are using in 2012 the united states is less racist than Mexico and doesn't have any institutional racism
And btw here is a paper breaking down how people in latin America try to deny the racism in the region, its basically an exposal on your posting in this thread
http://www.utexas.edu/law/centers/humanrights/events/adjudicating/papers/Deniallastversion.pdf
for fcks sake can you fukkin read?
YOU CLAIMED ERRONEOUSLY THAT RACISM IN THE UNITED STATES WAS IDENTICAL TO RACISM IN LATIN AMERICA
then in your own post you type there are no explicit laws which implement this racism, meaning there is no direct system in place now or before that has systematically disenfranchised a specific group to promote a majority based on the superiority of one's RACE
HOW THE FCK IS THAT THE SAME
the racist laws implemented in the U.S were created to continue to justify the institution of slavery, on the basis that WHITES WERE SUPERIOR to blacks, mentally/physically and that blacks werent even HUMAN. of course this basic premise escapes your grasp and clearly this notion of SUPERIORITY based on race, a superiority the WHITE MAJORITY believed in the U.S somehow directly translates to latin america, a region that is so ethnically diverse and different from the U.S, particularly in countries like Peru which have never had a white majority, or had an economy so dependent on slave labor that they needed to dehumanize blacks or natives and continue to subjugate them.
translation: this never existed in mexico. or peru. or chile. or el salvador. or honduras. or (insert every latin american country here), even brazil where it took forever to abolish slavery the systems were completely different.
and these unequal distributions of wealth are not based on RACE, it is based on classism. CLASSISM. CLASS+ISM. unless you somehow believe that mixed people believe they are "superior" as basically hybrids than pure indigenous or blacks and implement laws based on this superiority complex, the systems everywhere are entirely different.
further proof, the central and south american civil wars and coups in the 80s didnt take place as a result of racial oppression (though it exists but entirely differently than in the U.S)... it was a clash between classes, rich land owning elites vs the poorer majority. this unequal distribution of wealth has existed since gaining independence from spain and portugal.
and the U.S has continued to support this classism because it benefits them for a myriad of reasons, spheres of influence, trade, labor costs, banana republics and so on
the concept of "black man" and "im a white man" isnt a european construct, it was invented in the U.S. this system is unique to the U.S
TL;DR: racial discrimination exists everywhere, but the U.S system is unique and completely different from what exists anywhere in latin america. YOU SAID IT WAS THE SAME. you continue to say its the same, despite it being fukkin obvious that it isnt.