Jewish gentrification up close and personal.

Alvin

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Jewish folks are the main group of people that work as a unit. If one of those fukkers come into your neighborhood you can say goodbye your area will be Jewish by the next decade or split
shoutout criminal heights
 

Bryan Danielson

Jmare007 x Bryan Danielson x JLova = King Ghidorah
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#We Are The Flash #DOOMSET #LukeCageSet #NEWLWO
They pushing black folk out of every major city in the US. Like where do these devils expect low income people to go? Jersey used to be a cheaper place for people who couldn't afford New York, but now they messing that up too.

Them jews on a diffrent type of evil when it comes to exploitation...no empathy.


I’m trynna tell people we need to take over some of these other states

Yea I get it, it’s gonna be rough for that FIRST Generation or 2

But why can’t we take over Wyoming, Kansas, Nebraska, and the Dakotas?

Not everything needs to be NY, Cali, and ATL
 

ABlackMan

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They pushing black folk out of every major city in the US. Like where do these devils expect low income people to go? Jersey used to be a cheaper place for people who couldn't afford New York, but now they messing that up too.

Them jews on a diffrent type of evil when it comes to exploitation...no empathy.
They want somewhere to go too.
 

Koichos

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K'lal Yisraʾel
now i meditated on this

where and why, is it assumed that the "angel" was Esau?
The 'angel' was Yaʿaqov's twin-brother's, not Yaʿaqov's twin brother. It is ancient and borne out by the Midhrosh 'B'reshιth Rabboh'.

Furthermore, if it was indeed his "twin-brothers angel"...
See the next chapter, verse 10, which refers back to the narrative of P'niyʾel in 32:30 (or 32:31 in T'na"ch editions printed by Jews).

then are you also assuming that Esau is God?
This seems to me a totally ridiculous and unnecessary question: is a man, l'havdil God? No, and it could not be clearer or more explicit
לֹא אִישׁ אֵל וִיכַזֵּב
וּבֶן־אָדָם וְיִתְנֶחָם
הַהוּא אָמַר וְלֹא יַעֲשֶׂה
וְדִבֶּר וְלֹא יְקִימֶנָּה׃
God is not a man—would He lie?
Nor is He a human being—would He feel regret?
Does He say
[something] and not do [it],
Or speak and not perform
[what He spoke about]? (B'midhbar 23:19)


וְגַם נֵצַח יִשְׂרָאֵל לֹא יְשַׁקֵּר וְלֹא יִנָּחֵם
כִּי לֹא אָדָם הוּא לְהִנָּחֵם׃
...and, what is more, Yisroʾel's Eternal One does not lie and does not feel regret,
because He is not a man to feel regret. (Sh'muʾel ʾAlaf 15:29)


...אֵל אָנֹכִי וְלֹא־אִישׁ...
...I am God, not man... (Hosheʿa 11:9)

May I draw your attention to the writings of the anonymous prophet who uses the pseudonym Malʾochi? Pay particular attention to 1:3
ב. אָהַבְתִּי אֶתְכֶם אָמַר ה׳
וַאֲמַרְתֶּם בַּמָּה אֲהַבְתָּנוּ
הֲלוֹא־אָח עֵשָׂו לְיַעֲקֹב נְאֻם־ה׳
:וָאֹהַב אֶת־יַעֲקֹב

ג. וְאֶת־עֵשָׂו שָׂנֵאתִי
וָאָשִׂים אֶת־הָרָיו שְׁמָמָה
:וְאֶת־נַחֲלָתוֹ לְתַנּוֹת מִדְבָּר
2. 'I have loved you!' said Hashem,
and yet you asked, 'In what way did you love us?'
'Was ʿÉsow not the brother of Yaʿaqov?', Hashem declares,
'but I loved
[only] Yaʿaqov
3. and I hated ʿÉsow
and turned his hills into desolation
and made his inheritance fit only for desert jackals.' (Malʾochi 1:2-3)
In verse 3 of Malʾochi's first chapter, God (speaking through the prophet) explicitly says וְאֶת־עֵשָׂו שָׂנֵאתִי 'and I have always hated ʿÉsow'.

I dont follow this completely

Especially in light of the earlier part of Genesis 32:1-12


:jbhmm:
I don't understand the source of your confusion. Is it 'unto my lord...'? If so, the Hebrew noun אדני can be pointed in three distinct ways:
(i) אֲדֹנִי
(ii) אֲדֹנַי
(iii) אֲדֹנָי
All three inflections can be used as terms of address: the first one is singular and has the possessive pronominal suffix ־י -i ('my') added to it, and is analogous to the French monsieur or the German mein Herr; the second form is simply the plural of the first, again with the possessive pronominal suffix ־י -i 'my' added to it; and the third form is very special and is used exclusively for addressing The Creator.

The exception to this rule is when אֲדֹנַי (ii) occurs at the end of a clause or a sentence, the short vowel פַּתַּח (or אַ) changes abruptly to the long vowel קָמַץ (or אָ) to indicate a linguistic pause, so that אֲדֹנַי becomes אֲדֹנָי. The use of אֲדֹנַי in the T'na"ch is very rare (as in B'reshıth 19:2); if my concordance is accurate, the only place it occurs in the pausa is when ʾAvrom uses it to address the 'men' in B'reshıth 18:3.

The word translated as 'unto my lord' in your verse 4 (verse 5 in the T'na"ch) is לַאדֹנִי: i.e., the first form אֲדֹנִי prefixed by the preposition ל־ 'to'. לַאדֹנִי occurs at verses 4, 5 and 18 (5, 6 and 19 in the T'na"ch) and means 'to my [human] master/lord'; this form is never used for The Creator. In contemporary usage, for example, I might ask: ?הֲאִם אַתָּה רוֹצֶה מַשֶׁהוּ לִשְׁתּוֹת, אֲדוֹנִי ('Do you want something to drink, sir?').


-------------
Or maybe it's the fact that Yaʿaqov is to be called עַבְדְּךָ ('your servant') in reference to his brother in verse 4 (verse 5 in Jewish editions)? The Hebrew word for work is עֲבֹדָה; that is what and עֶבֶד (slave, servant) does, and it really does mean hard work. The word rendered as 'servant' is often עֶבֶד, which is derived from the verbal-root עבד (to work, serve) and therefore can equally well be translated as 'worker'.

Is it true to say that a servant worships his master as a god? Of course not; he just 'works' for him. The Biblical usage of the root עבד (to serve) occurs on numerous occasions throughout the T'na"ch, both in the sense of working for a master (עַבְדְּךָ 'your servant' in B'reshıth 32:5,19,21, as in Yaʿaqov/ʿÉsow) and also in the sense of working for God (עַבְדֶּךָ, pausa of עַבְדְּךָ, in B'reshıth 32:11, as in Yaʿaqov/God).

On a slightly different tack, it is interesting that a Jewish marriage contract incorporates the Aramaic verb אֶפְלַח 'I shall serve you' in the solemn declaration made by the bridgegroom undertaking to maintain and support his bride. Now, the root this word is derived from is cognate with the Hebrew עבד (to work, to serve); nonetheless there is no implication of the husband 'worshiping' his wife as a goddess!
 

MMS

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The 'angel' was Yaʿaqov's twin-brother's, not Yaʿaqov's twin brother. It is ancient and borne out by the Midhrosh 'B'reshιth Rabboh'.


See the next chapter, verse 10, which refers back to the narrative of P'niyʾel in 32:30 (or 32:31 in T'na"ch editions printed by Jews).


This seems to me a totally ridiculous and unnecessary question: is a man, l'havdil God? No, and it could not be clearer or more explicit


May I draw your attention to the writings of the anonymous prophet who uses the pseudonym Malʾochi? Pay particular attention to 1:3

In verse 3 of Malʾochi's first chapter, God (speaking through the prophet) explicitly says וְאֶת־עֵשָׂו שָׂנֵאתִי 'and I have always hated ʿÉsow'.


I don't understand the source of your confusion. Is it 'unto my lord...'? If so, the Hebrew noun אדני can be pointed in three distinct ways:

All three inflections can be used as terms of address: the first one is singular and has the possessive pronominal suffix ־י -i ('my') added to it, and is analogous to the French monsieur or the German mein Herr; the second form is simply the plural of the first, again with the possessive pronominal suffix ־י -i 'my' added to it; and the third form is very special and is used exclusively for addressing The Creator.

The exception to this rule is when אֲדֹנַי (ii) occurs at the end of a clause or a sentence, the short vowel פַּתַּח (or אַ) changes abruptly to the long vowel קָמַץ (or אָ) to indicate a linguistic pause, so that אֲדֹנַי becomes אֲדֹנָי. The use of אֲדֹנַי in the T'na"ch is very rare (as in B'reshıth 19:2); if my concordance is accurate, the only place it occurs in the pausa is when ʾAvrom uses it to address the 'men' in B'reshıth 18:3.

The word translated as 'unto my lord' in your verse 4 (verse 5 in the T'na"ch) is לַאדֹנִי: i.e., the first form אֲדֹנִי prefixed by the preposition ל־ 'to'. לַאדֹנִי occurs at verses 4, 5 and 18 (5, 6 and 19 in the T'na"ch) and means 'to my [human] master/lord'; this form is never used for The Creator. In contemporary usage, for example, I might ask: ?הֲאִם אַתָּה רוֹצֶה מַשֶׁהוּ לִשְׁתּוֹת, אֲדוֹנִי ('Do you want something to drink, sir?').


-------------
Or maybe it's the fact that Yaʿaqov is to be called עַבְדְּךָ ('your servant') in reference to his brother in verse 4 (verse 5 in Jewish editions)? The Hebrew word for work is עֲבֹדָה; that is what and עֶבֶד (slave, servant) does, and it really does mean hard work. The word rendered as 'servant' is often עֶבֶד, which is derived from the verbal-root עבד (to work, serve) and therefore can equally well be translated as 'worker'.

Is it true to say that a servant worships his master as a god? Of course not; he just 'works' for him. The Biblical usage of the root עבד (to serve) occurs on numerous occasions throughout the T'na"ch, both in the sense of working for a master (עַבְדְּךָ 'your servant' in B'reshıth 32:5,19,21, as in Yaʿaqov/ʿÉsow) and also in the sense of working for God (עַבְדֶּךָ, pausa of עַבְדְּךָ, in B'reshıth 32:11, as in Yaʿaqov/God).

On a slightly different tack, it is interesting that a Jewish marriage contract incorporates the Aramaic verb אֶפְלַח 'I shall serve you' in the solemn declaration made by the bridgegroom undertaking to maintain and support his bride. Now, the root this word is derived from is cognate with the Hebrew עבד (to work, to serve); nonetheless there is no implication of the husband 'worshiping' his wife as a goddess!
thank you for the clarification, regarding the last sentence...it depends on what you define as "worship" :takedat:

 
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