I'm just trying to follow the same rules y'all make up. Those of you saying that he was justified to kill because the guy reached for his gun AFTER he fired a shot are using the exact same excuse that Rittenhouse used, the exact same excuse that Arbury's killers used. So is reaching for the gun of a guy who has already demonstrated evil intent a justifiable reason to kill someone or no?
Then y'all are claiming that even the first shot is justified cause the guy was on his property and "made threats", even though he didn't make those threats until AFTER the gun was pulled. Well, Bryant was on her own property and those other girls had a knife and made threats against her, can she defend herself on her own property or not?
I'm consistent - I don't think anyone should ever be the first one to use lethal force. I think Bryant was in the wrong even though she was on her own property and those others had made threats. I think Arbury's killers, Rittenhouse, and this guy were all in the wrong even though someone tried to grab their guns. THEY were the ones who made it a lethal situation in the first place.
At three different points in the video, the motherfukker with the gun escalated the situation to make it more lethal. He had no need to get the gun in the first place, he had no need to fire the first shot, and he had no need to fire the deadly shots. His life was not in danger at ANY of those moments, so it was completely unnecessary to introduce lethal force.
But some of y'all will just
for a gun in Amerikkka when no other developed nation on Earth would be defending this bullshyt.