I really don't have a horse in this race so i'm trying to look at this objectively....
So if we say that the Romans created Palestine OVER jewish land is it right i saying the jews have "some claim" to that land...
I'm fully aware that the romans displaced a shyt ton of people and if we grant "rights" to land they conquered to the people they conquered then displaced it's a very sticky situation, but for the sake of argument is the following statement true?
"The Romans displaced the Jews, then created Palestine over "Jewish land."
?
your looking at it all wrong. From the roman perspective they didn't displace anyone that was there land they conquered and they did with it what they pleased. And the only person who has claim on the land is whoever can hold it.