This world is so fukked up that women think God is a girl

MMS

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Only men can hold convo with the father most high, I don’t know why it’s like that but almost every successful religion and culture came to that conclusion.
how are you so sure?


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Koichos

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K'lal Yisraʾel
Want another interesting tidbit that I've been meditating on this topic specifically

the name that God (Elohim) used for "Darkness"


in english we easily pass by this line and think nothing of it but the names are actually unusual. for instance the word for "Darkness" actually means also whisper, murmur, or hiss...


then the name that God (elohim) used for Darkness is "Layla" but the particular spelling of this name is used exactly once:

but another variation of this name is used in many other places (like Numbers and Exodus)

While I am an Orthodox Christian I am not ignorant to the origin of the Septuagint which was commissioned by the Ptolemies of Egypt who worshiped those same deities that were spoken against within the same documents...why would they replicate a text that was against Egyptian Gods unless they had a different intention :jbhmm:

consider that with your belief in Demons and the apostles quotations of Enoch.
The words used for 'darkness' and 'night' in 1:5 are חֹשֶׁךְ and לָיְלָה, respectively (לָיְלָה is the pausa of לַיְלָה because it occurs at the end of a clause: as I have written, the short vowels פַּתַּח (אַ) and סֶגּוֹל (אֶ) regularly change to the long vowel קָמַץ (אָ) to indicate a linguistic pause).
 

Koichos

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K'lal Yisraʾel
the image of God could also be interpreted as a "picture mosaic" which makes more sense if you consider infinite sets (like mandelbrot or julia sets)
The Creator has no image and, in any case, it is a basic rule of Hebrew grammar that an unresolved pronoun must refer back to the last noun that occurs before in the same sentence: that is, the unresolved possessive pronoun suffix ־ו ('his') ought to refer to the last subject that precedes it in the sentence—אֶת־הָֽאָדָם֙, not אֱלֹקִים; this reading is reinforced by the presence of a vertical dividing bar (called p'siq in Hebrew) after the name אֱלֹקִ֤ים, and by the phrasing implied by the disjunctive ṭaʿamim (or cantillation marks פַּשְׁתָּא֙, זָקֵף־קָטֹ֔ן) with which the words אֶת־הָֽאָדָם֙ ('the ʾadam'; note the פַּשְׁתָּא֙ over the ם֙) and בְּצַלְמ֔וֹ ('in his [note the lowercase 'h'] [own] form'; note the זָקֵף־קָטֹ֔ן over the מ֔).

The 'shape' or 'form' in which the primitive ʾadam was created was therefore 'drafted' or 'designed' specifically for him by the Creator—ruling out any possibility of evolution (*but only in the case of humanity)—and the continuation of the same verse underscores this:

...וַיִּבְרָ֨א אֱלֹקִ֤ים ׀ אֶת־הָֽאָדָם֙ בְּצַלְמ֔וֹ
Then God created the ʾadam in its [own] form... (1:27a)
...בְּצֶ֥לֶם אֱלֹקִ֖ים בָּרָ֣א אֹת֑וֹ...
...in a design of God's did He [God] create it [the ʾadam]... (1:27b)
That is not, חַס וְשָׁלוֹם, to say 'looking like God' because He does not have any physical appearance, but rather that the Creator fashioned אָדָם הָרִאשׁוֹן ('the primitive ʾadam') in a form that was 'of God' in the sense that God 'had designed it'—hence 'in a form of God's'. If you find the second clause 'He [God] created him [i.e., the ʾadam; mankind] in a 'form' of God's' confusing, think about Thomas Edison building the first phonograph in 1877. Whose design did Edison use for it? His own—'he built it in a form/blueprint/pattern/'image' of Edison's'. So, man was created 'in a form/blueprint/pattern/'image' that the Creator had designed'; not 'His' image, because 'He' does not have one!
 

Koichos

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K'lal Yisraʾel
And Satan (Hasatan) just means adversary and was sent to the Gentiles (By God himself) as his prophet see Numbers 22 (Balaam which means Swallower or Destroyer)
The former is an angel and the latter is a prophet (see my post #754). Incidentally, 'hasatan' does not occur at all in that passage (or that book, for that matter)—it is found precisely sixteen times: twice in Z'charyoh 3:2 and fourteen times in the first two chapters of ʾIyyov.
 

MMS

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The Creator has no image and, in any case, it is a basic rule of Hebrew grammar that an unresolved pronoun must refer back to the last noun that occurs before in the same sentence: that is, the unresolved possessive pronoun suffix ־ו ('his') ought to refer to the last subject that precedes it in the sentence—אֶת־הָֽאָדָם֙, not אֱלֹקִים; this reading is reinforced by the presence of a vertical dividing bar (called p'siq in Hebrew) after the name אֱלֹקִ֤ים, and by the phrasing implied by the disjunctive ṭaʿamim (or cantillation marks פַּשְׁתָּא֙, זָקֵף־קָטֹ֔ן) with which the words אֶת־הָֽאָדָם֙ ('the ʾadam'; note the פַּשְׁתָּא֙ over the ם֙) and בְּצַלְמ֔וֹ ('in his [note the lowercase 'h'] [own] form'; note the זָקֵף־קָטֹ֔ן over the מ֔).

The 'shape' or 'form' in which the primitive ʾadam was created was therefore 'drafted' or 'designed' specifically for him by the Creator—ruling out any possibility of evolution (*but only in the case of humanity)—and the continuation of the same verse underscores this:

That is not, חַס וְשָׁלוֹם, to say 'looking like God' because He does not have any physical appearance, but rather that the Creator fashioned אָדָם הָרִאשׁוֹן ('the primitive ʾadam') in a form that was 'of God' in the sense that God 'had designed it'—hence 'in a form of God's'. If you find the second clause 'He
[God] created him [i.e., the ʾadam; mankind] in a 'form' of God's' confusing, think about Thomas Edison building the first phonograph in 1877. Whose design did Edison use for it? His own—'he built it in a form/blueprint/pattern/'image' of Edison's'. So, man was created 'in a form/blueprint/pattern/'image' that the Creator had designed'; not 'His' image, because 'He' does not have one!
by this same logic, riddle me this

1 In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth.
we are all used to this in English....but in Hebrew the order is off by a word


Such that it translates to:

"In the beginning created God the heaven and the earth"



Is the Hebrew translation implying that Bereshyt is the cause of Elohim? :jbhmm: EDIT it's not letting me link it properly because of the filter
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Beresh it_(parashah) delete a space between sh and it


John 1:1
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

:wtf:
 
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Rozay Oro

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Want another interesting tidbit that I've been meditating on this topic specifically

the name that God (Elohim) used for "Darkness"


in english we easily pass by this line and think nothing of it but the names are actually unusual. for instance the word for "Darkness" actually means also whisper, murmur, or hiss...


then the name that God (elohim) used for Darkness is "Layla" but the particular spelling of this name is used exactly once:

but another variation of this name is used in many other places (like Numbers and Exodus)

While I am an Orthodox Christian I am not ignorant to the origin of the Septuagint which was commissioned by the Ptolemies of Egypt who worshiped those same deities that were spoken against within the same documents...why would they replicate a text that was against Egyptian Gods unless they had a different intention :jbhmm:

consider that with your belief in Demons and the apostles quotations of Enoch.
Interesting and I do appreciate you sharing that with me. I actually want to learn about that, I don’t pretend to know it all. Just trying to lead people who don’t know God. Beasts are nephilim or in Revelations with the creatures from the bottomless pit. As far as demons they are unclean spirits that possess or influence us to sin according to the Bible.
 
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MMS

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Interesting and I do appreciate you sharing that with me. I actually want to learn about that, I don’t pretend to know it all. Just trying to lead people who don’t know God. Beasts are nephilim or in Revelations with the creatures from the bottomless pit. As far as demons they are unclean spirits that possess or influence us to sin according to the Bible.
Genesis 1 can be construed in more than one way which is what makes it very mysterious

similar to what brother @Marks implied with this post/video here:

it could also be considered like the pinwheel that when blown upon creates an abstraction...

in string theory it is believed that strings in the highest dimensions are vibrating giving rise to the dimensions below it

Job 41:32-34
32 He maketh a path to shine after him; one would think the deep to be hoary.

33 Upon earth there is not his like, who is made without fear.

34 He beholdeth all high things: he is a king over all the children of pride.
 

Koichos

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K'lal Yisraʾel
by this same logic, riddle me this


we are all used to this in English....but in Hebrew the order is off by a word


Such that it translates to:

"In the beginning created God the heaven and the earth"
You're trying to impose English grammatical rules onto Hebrew (particularly that which occurs in T'na"ch), and they are incompatible.

Is the Hebrew translation implying that Bereshyt is the cause of Elohim? :jbhmm:
No.. interestingly enough, though, according to the septuagint legend, the seventy-two Jewish Elders all made more than a dozen minor changes to the Greek translation in order to prevent misunderstanding (and, of course, miraculously, all seventy-two made precisely the same alterations): the first was changing בְּרֵאשִׁית בָּרָא אֱלֹקִים to אֱלֹקִים בָּרָא בְּרֵאשִׁית in case the reader conclude that בְּרֵאשִׁית created אֱלֹקִים !!!

EDIT it's not letting me link it properly because of the filter
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Beresh it_(parashah) delete a space between sh and it
You have to cheat and use the character ı (Latin small letter dotless i) or the character ι (Greek lowercase iota) when typing 'B'reshıt' in order to bypass the filter because otherwise the last four letters are interpreted as unacceptable language and you end up with 'B'reshyt'.


John 1:1


:wtf:
If you try to write it in Hebrew it just makes nonsense: the Hebrew translation of the Greek text by the infamous 19th-century apostate Isaac Edward Zalkinsohn (1820-1883; published posthumously in 1886) renders the last clause of John 1:1, והוא הדבר היה אלהים (which actually translates as 'and that thing was a god'—that is, an idol!) because the Hebrew noun דבר is the closest thing that Hebrew has to a neuter noun and literally means a thing or an 'inanimate object' rather than a 'word' and it cannot possibly refer to a 'living' anything!
 

MMS

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You're trying to impose English grammatical rules onto Hebrew (particularly that which occurs in T'na"ch), and they are incompatible.


No.. interestingly enough, though, according to the septuagint legend, the seventy-two Jewish Elders all made more than a dozen minor changes to the Greek translation in order to prevent misunderstanding (and, of course, miraculously, all seventy-two made precisely the same alterations): the first was changing בְּרֵאשִׁית בָּרָא אֱלֹקִים to אֱלֹקִים בָּרָא בְּרֵאשִׁית in case the reader conclude that בְּרֵאשִׁית created אֱלֹקִים !!!


You have to cheat and use the character ı (Latin small letter dotless i) or the character ι (Greek lowercase iota) when typing 'B'reshıt' in order to bypass the filter because otherwise the last four letters are interpreted as unacceptable language and you end up with 'B'reshyt'.


If you try to write it in Hebrew it just makes nonsense: the Hebrew translation of the Greek text by the infamous 19th-century apostate Isaac Edward Zalkinsohn (1820-1883; published posthumously in 1886) renders the last clause of John 1:1, והוא הדבר היה אלהים (which actually translates as 'and that thing was a god'—that is, an idol!) because the Hebrew noun דבר is the closest thing that Hebrew has to a neuter noun and literally means a thing or an 'inanimate object' rather than a 'word' and it cannot possibly refer to a 'living' anything!
i figured you of all people would notice my pun on bereshyt as "Bear shyt" :troll: never forget my "snuggle" post

an interesting aside, as you like to say, is if you ignore diacritical marks and change Heth to He אלהים becomes אלחים which translates to "infection"
 
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MMS

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Ha! Well, maybe if you had spelled it as such. But the first two letters of the word בראשית are pointed בְּרֵ־ ("b'ray") and not בֵּרְ־ ("bear").
while I use Egypt to make points, the civilization I use the most in age of mythology is actually Loki :old:
 
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