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Only men can hold convo with the father most high, I don’t know why it’s like that but almost every successful religion and culture came to that conclusion.Who says God is a man? Or even human
Only men can hold convo with the father most high, I don’t know why it’s like that but almost every successful religion and culture came to that conclusion.Who says God is a man? Or even human
how are you so sure?Only men can hold convo with the father most high, I don’t know why it’s like that but almost every successful religion and culture came to that conclusion.
The words used for 'darkness' and 'night' in 1:5 are חֹשֶׁךְ and לָיְלָה, respectively (לָיְלָה is the pausa of לַיְלָה because it occurs at the end of a clause: as I have written, the short vowels פַּתַּח (אַ) and סֶגּוֹל (אֶ) regularly change to the long vowel קָמַץ (אָ) to indicate a linguistic pause).Want another interesting tidbit that I've been meditating on this topic specifically
the name that God (Elohim) used for "Darkness"
in english we easily pass by this line and think nothing of it but the names are actually unusual. for instance the word for "Darkness" actually means also whisper, murmur, or hiss...
then the name that God (elohim) used for Darkness is "Layla" but the particular spelling of this name is used exactly once:
but another variation of this name is used in many other places (like Numbers and Exodus)
While I am an Orthodox Christian I am not ignorant to the origin of the Septuagint which was commissioned by the Ptolemies of Egypt who worshiped those same deities that were spoken against within the same documents...why would they replicate a text that was against Egyptian Gods unless they had a different intention
consider that with your belief in Demons and the apostles quotations of Enoch.
The Creator has no image and, in any case, it is a basic rule of Hebrew grammar that an unresolved pronoun must refer back to the last noun that occurs before in the same sentence: that is, the unresolved possessive pronoun suffix ־ו ('his') ought to refer to the last subject that precedes it in the sentence—אֶת־הָֽאָדָם֙, not אֱלֹקִים; this reading is reinforced by the presence of a vertical dividing bar (called p'siq in Hebrew) after the name אֱלֹקִ֤ים, and by the phrasing implied by the disjunctive ṭaʿamim (or cantillation marks פַּשְׁתָּא֙, זָקֵף־קָטֹ֔ן) with which the words אֶת־הָֽאָדָם֙ ('the ʾadam'; note the פַּשְׁתָּא֙ over the ם֙) and בְּצַלְמ֔וֹ ('in his [note the lowercase 'h'] [own] form'; note the זָקֵף־קָטֹ֔ן over the מ֔).the image of God could also be interpreted as a "picture mosaic" which makes more sense if you consider infinite sets (like mandelbrot or julia sets)
Why would GOD design a 10 year old to be able to get Pregnant??
So perhaps the confusion is whether man believes God is a predator :jbhmm: thus why I've said time and again, God does not delight in sacrifice Isaiah 1:11 "skill is far weaker than ananke (necessity)" "The Beautiful Ones always smash the picture, always every time" :wow...www.thecoli.com
That is not, חַס וְשָׁלוֹם, to say 'looking like God' because He does not have any physical appearance, but rather that the Creator fashioned אָדָם הָרִאשׁוֹן ('the primitive ʾadam') in a form that was 'of God' in the sense that God 'had designed it'—hence 'in a form of God's'. If you find the second clause 'He [God] created him [i.e., the ʾadam; mankind] in a 'form' of God's' confusing, think about Thomas Edison building the first phonograph in 1877. Whose design did Edison use for it? His own—'he built it in a form/blueprint/pattern/'image' of Edison's'. So, man was created 'in a form/blueprint/pattern/'image' that the Creator had designed'; not 'His' image, because 'He' does not have one!...וַיִּבְרָ֨א אֱלֹקִ֤ים ׀ אֶת־הָֽאָדָם֙ בְּצַלְמ֔וֹThen God created the ʾadam in its [own] form... (1:27a)
...בְּצֶ֥לֶם אֱלֹקִ֖ים בָּרָ֣א אֹת֑וֹ......in a design of God's did He [God] create it [the ʾadam]... (1:27b)
I was gonna say what makes you think its a man but then remembered that murderous, petty, sociopathic God from the NT can only be a mans's doing
The former is an angel and the latter is a prophet (see my post #754). Incidentally, 'hasatan' does not occur at all in that passage (or that book, for that matter)—it is found precisely sixteen times: twice in Z'charyoh 3:2 and fourteen times in the first two chapters of ʾIyyov.And Satan (Hasatan) just means adversary and was sent to the Gentiles (By God himself) as his prophet see Numbers 22 (Balaam which means Swallower or Destroyer)
Bible Gateway passage: Numbers 22 - King James Version
And the children of Israel set forward, and pitched in the plains of Moab on this side Jordan by Jericho. And Balak the son of Zippor saw all that Israel had done to the Amorites. And Moab was sore afraid of the people, because they were many: and Moab was distressed because of the children of...www.biblegateway.com
by this same logic, riddle me thisThe Creator has no image and, in any case, it is a basic rule of Hebrew grammar that an unresolved pronoun must refer back to the last noun that occurs before in the same sentence: that is, the unresolved possessive pronoun suffix ־ו ('his') ought to refer to the last subject that precedes it in the sentence—אֶת־הָֽאָדָם֙, not אֱלֹקִים; this reading is reinforced by the presence of a vertical dividing bar (called p'siq in Hebrew) after the name אֱלֹקִ֤ים, and by the phrasing implied by the disjunctive ṭaʿamim (or cantillation marks פַּשְׁתָּא֙, זָקֵף־קָטֹ֔ן) with which the words אֶת־הָֽאָדָם֙ ('the ʾadam'; note the פַּשְׁתָּא֙ over the ם֙) and בְּצַלְמ֔וֹ ('in his [note the lowercase 'h'] [own] form'; note the זָקֵף־קָטֹ֔ן over the מ֔).
The 'shape' or 'form' in which the primitive ʾadam was created was therefore 'drafted' or 'designed' specifically for him by the Creator—ruling out any possibility of evolution (*but only in the case of humanity)—and the continuation of the same verse underscores this:
That is not, חַס וְשָׁלוֹם, to say 'looking like God' because He does not have any physical appearance, but rather that the Creator fashioned אָדָם הָרִאשׁוֹן ('the primitive ʾadam') in a form that was 'of God' in the sense that God 'had designed it'—hence 'in a form of God's'. If you find the second clause 'He [God] created him [i.e., the ʾadam; mankind] in a 'form' of God's' confusing, think about Thomas Edison building the first phonograph in 1877. Whose design did Edison use for it? His own—'he built it in a form/blueprint/pattern/'image' of Edison's'. So, man was created 'in a form/blueprint/pattern/'image' that the Creator had designed'; not 'His' image, because 'He' does not have one!
we are all used to this in English....but in Hebrew the order is off by a word1 In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth.
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Interesting and I do appreciate you sharing that with me. I actually want to learn about that, I don’t pretend to know it all. Just trying to lead people who don’t know God. Beasts are nephilim or in Revelations with the creatures from the bottomless pit. As far as demons they are unclean spirits that possess or influence us to sin according to the Bible.Want another interesting tidbit that I've been meditating on this topic specifically
the name that God (Elohim) used for "Darkness"
in english we easily pass by this line and think nothing of it but the names are actually unusual. for instance the word for "Darkness" actually means also whisper, murmur, or hiss...
then the name that God (elohim) used for Darkness is "Layla" but the particular spelling of this name is used exactly once:
but another variation of this name is used in many other places (like Numbers and Exodus)
While I am an Orthodox Christian I am not ignorant to the origin of the Septuagint which was commissioned by the Ptolemies of Egypt who worshiped those same deities that were spoken against within the same documents...why would they replicate a text that was against Egyptian Gods unless they had a different intention
consider that with your belief in Demons and the apostles quotations of Enoch.
How can you make such a bold statement? If you’re wrong, would you be able to admit it (to yourself) and seek him?aint no god
Genesis 1 can be construed in more than one way which is what makes it very mysteriousInteresting and I do appreciate you sharing that with me. I actually want to learn about that, I don’t pretend to know it all. Just trying to lead people who don’t know God. Beasts are nephilim or in Revelations with the creatures from the bottomless pit. As far as demons they are unclean spirits that possess or influence us to sin according to the Bible.
32 He maketh a path to shine after him; one would think the deep to be hoary.
33 Upon earth there is not his like, who is made without fear.
34 He beholdeth all high things: he is a king over all the children of pride.
You're trying to impose English grammatical rules onto Hebrew (particularly that which occurs in T'na"ch), and they are incompatible.by this same logic, riddle me this
we are all used to this in English....but in Hebrew the order is off by a word
Such that it translates to:
"In the beginning created God the heaven and the earth"
No.. interestingly enough, though, according to the septuagint legend, the seventy-two Jewish Elders all made more than a dozen minor changes to the Greek translation in order to prevent misunderstanding (and, of course, miraculously, all seventy-two made precisely the same alterations): the first was changing בְּרֵאשִׁית בָּרָא אֱלֹקִים to אֱלֹקִים בָּרָא בְּרֵאשִׁית in case the reader conclude that בְּרֵאשִׁית created אֱלֹקִים !!!Is the Hebrew translation implying that Bereshyt is the cause of Elohim?
You have to cheat and use the character ı (Latin small letter dotless i) or the character ι (Greek lowercase iota) when typing 'B'reshıt' in order to bypass the filter because otherwise the last four letters are interpreted as unacceptable language and you end up with 'B'reshyt'.EDIT it's not letting me link it properly because of the filter
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Beresh it_(parashah) delete a space between sh and it
If you try to write it in Hebrew it just makes nonsense: the Hebrew translation of the Greek text by the infamous 19th-century apostate Isaac Edward Zalkinsohn (1820-1883; published posthumously in 1886) renders the last clause of John 1:1, והוא הדבר היה אלהים (which actually translates as 'and that thing was a god'—that is, an idol!) because the Hebrew noun דבר is the closest thing that Hebrew has to a neuter noun and literally means a thing or an 'inanimate object' rather than a 'word' and it cannot possibly refer to a 'living' anything!We are living in a world of illusion
God doesn't desire sacrifice. But wicked men do. Psalm 40:5-6 why do you insist on asking me what i believe? is it not just a projection of your own internal quarrel? if you dont trust what i say, just say that. Scripture is scripture :ehh: did you ever speak to a Rabbi? :troll: EDIT -...www.thecoli.com
John 1:1
i figured you of all people would notice my pun on bereshyt as "Bear shyt" never forget my "snuggle" postYou're trying to impose English grammatical rules onto Hebrew (particularly that which occurs in T'na"ch), and they are incompatible.
No.. interestingly enough, though, according to the septuagint legend, the seventy-two Jewish Elders all made more than a dozen minor changes to the Greek translation in order to prevent misunderstanding (and, of course, miraculously, all seventy-two made precisely the same alterations): the first was changing בְּרֵאשִׁית בָּרָא אֱלֹקִים to אֱלֹקִים בָּרָא בְּרֵאשִׁית in case the reader conclude that בְּרֵאשִׁית created אֱלֹקִים !!!
You have to cheat and use the character ı (Latin small letter dotless i) or the character ι (Greek lowercase iota) when typing 'B'reshıt' in order to bypass the filter because otherwise the last four letters are interpreted as unacceptable language and you end up with 'B'reshyt'.
If you try to write it in Hebrew it just makes nonsense: the Hebrew translation of the Greek text by the infamous 19th-century apostate Isaac Edward Zalkinsohn (1820-1883; published posthumously in 1886) renders the last clause of John 1:1, והוא הדבר היה אלהים (which actually translates as 'and that thing was a god'—that is, an idol!) because the Hebrew noun דבר is the closest thing that Hebrew has to a neuter noun and literally means a thing or an 'inanimate object' rather than a 'word' and it cannot possibly refer to a 'living' anything!
Ha! Well, maybe if you had spelled it as such. But the first two letters of the word בראשית are pointed בְּרֵ־ ("b'ray") and not בֵּרְ־ ("bear").i figured you of all people would notice my pun on bereshyt as "Bear shyt" never forget my "snuggle" post
Callisto (mythology) - Wikipedia
en.wikipedia.org
while I use Egypt to make points, the civilization I use the most in age of mythology is actually LokiHa! Well, maybe if you had spelled it as such. But the first two letters of the word בראשית are pointed בְּרֵ־ ("b'ray") and not בֵּרְ־ ("bear").