I don't disagree - I do tenant defense a good chunk of the time and any contract, written or verbal, evidencing intent to lease is something that I will argue in favor of (and construe against the drafter).
I appreciate your experience in these types of issues. If you don't mind, i had another question about this case. I don't know if you watched the whole case but in the final hearing, the owner brought the land contract he had with his son/the previous owner and the lawyer claimed that there were clauses in the contract that prevent the previous owner from renting out the house and he cited the paragraphs. When the judge read it out loud, it was something like "the owner of the house must get permission from the land owner before making any changes to the property that would decrease its value". And the judge agreed that the 61year lease decreases the value of the house and based on that the owner of the house at the time was not allowed to enter into a lease which made the lease invalid.
In your opinion, do you think the tenant could have argued the following two points?:
1. The value of the property is not decreased since the lease would guarantee income for 61 years for a total of more than 700k and the lawyer himself said the house was worth about 250k. Plus they still keep the asset in the end.
2. "Changes to the property" should mean like if they destroy a wall or convert a room or basement into something else. Entering into a lease agreement changes the use of the property but not the property itself.
I could be wrong and maybe i missed something in the videos but that's the way i would have attacked it. Don't really care either way, just trying to "excircise my logical muscles", lol