LIBYAN MARKETS selling BLACK SLAVES for 800$....right now in 2017

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According to the recent DNA study Berbers are Caucasoid Arabs, even though they have Sub-Saharan; Black African ancestry. They possess a genetic profile that is intermediate between Europeans and Sub-Saharan Africans and have a close genetic relationship with Mediterranean Europeans but also possess some characteristics of Sub-Saharan Africans.
So, technically they are a mixture of Xanthochroi (White European) and Melanochroi (Mediterranean).

Berbers represent 80% of the population in Morocco and Algeria, more than 60% in Tunisia and Libya and 2% in Egypt, making up more than 50 million people. In addition there are about 4 million Berbers living in Europe, primarily in France.

Read more: Are Berber people white or black or a distinct races (Berber Race)? (influence, speak) - Africa - City-Data Forum
nope. they're black. you posted a post off a forum with no source. Heres scientific proof.

Haplogroup E1b1b (Y-DNA)

anything beginning with E = african. Semites = J. europeans = R

They migrated into the region from east africa thousands of years ago. They did not evolve in the caucus mountains nor arabia and populate the area, some invaders from that region came, but not enough to completely change the demographics nor dna, they simply got absorbed, especially since the arabs couldnt conquer the region so they married into it. Theres beef between berbers and arabs.
 

3rdWorld

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Islam has nothing to do with this.:mindblown:

Way to show your ignorance, as Libya is not even a Islamic country.

Its what they worship and believe in staunchly. And there's passages in their book that they use to justify abuse towards blacks.
 

The Amerikkkan Idol

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I told y'all about Hillary Clinton two years ago and y'all called me a c00n :pacspit: The Clinton's have fukked Haiti, Honduras, Libya, and had a hand in Syria.

And The Coli buried my Donna Brazile admitted they rigged the primary against Bernie thread, too.:sas2:

Funny how they keep Trump threads on the front page, but the minute you expose shyt about The Clintons, these c00ns are silent
 

Concerning VIolence

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In principle I don't care much for these men, who despite being young and able bodied decided to leave their homelands with the noble ambition of being servants in someone else's, yet they are still my blood and image. When they are degraded like this it debases what we are as subsaharan men. This is intolerable. We seem to be tolerant of much we shouldn't. Arabs and muslims and white supremacist systems are not the problem. We are. Subsaharan African men. Weak, Stupid, Indolent. Till when? The world is not at fault for hating us, rather we are at fault for not giving the world stern deterrence for acting on that hatred.

It's coming. I feel it bubbling inside me, and I imagine (or hope) that the same is happening to quite a few more of us. "Civilised" society's current value system and notions of morality are worthless and alien to those of us, and only growing hostile. War, war-rape, slavery, culling, genocide, the "evils" of the world aren't even evil in my eyes anymore; just tools: "I can't measure them in a vacuum..." I would tell you, "they need weight; tell me of the intent and the results...".
Yes action is necessary; repayment in full is necessary. But we'd be amiss not to look to the norms and practices in our midst that continue to produce weak worthless and impotent men. This is yet another lesson for us.


Shut the fukk up.

You wrote this on your Iphone 8 didn't you?
 

Concerning VIolence

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For the fukking 15th time, Berbers are not Arabs, they are black.

Berber is a lose collectivization of ethnic confederations. It's not really a race.

Tuaregs for instance, are black Berbers. But not all Berbers are Tuaregs.


Stop claiming North African Arabs as black Africans. All this fake solidarity with Libya and Morocco...

Being on the continent of Africa doesn't make you BLACK African.
 

Afro

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I don't usually answer you dumb smart nikkas but I'm bored right now :russ:

For one, slavery in North Africa predates Islam by millennia. Islam did not introduce slavery to the world, it merely regulated what was already a pre-existing institution (more on that later). To suggest that these Libyan bandits, who aside from enslaving mostly Muslim Africans also kidnap people, torture them and extort money from their relatives, are being driven by religious injunctions instead of basic opportunism is not only intellectually dishonest, it's also downright retarded:russ:


As for the quote that you posted, its an extremely biased, decontextualized "analysis" of those verses :mjlol:

They were revealed at a time when you could literally kidnap a random person in the desert and sell that person into slavery. You could even be enslaved if you owed a debt that you couldn't repay. You could also be born into slavery. Within that context, the verses actually restrict the conditions under which one could become enslaved to such a degree that only captives of war (regardless of race) could become slaves. 1400+ years ago, that was actually quite an improvement :yeshrug:


Compare that to how slavery was practised elsewhere in the world :francis:

Slaves also had rights. They received a salary, could eventually buy their freedom, their offspring were born free, you could not beat them etc. They were more like servants than "slaves" in the Western understanding of that word.

Some "slaves" even became kings (the Mamluk dynasty in Egypt was established by European slaves. "Mamluk" literally means "someone who is owned" i.e property). Some of the most renowned scholars were slaves. It was a completely different system to what we know in the West.

Also, the first verse is addressed to Muslims in general and is not restricted to the Prophet (pbuh).

Aside from that, there are plenty of verses that strongly encourage the freeing of slaves and there are many sins for which the atonement is freeing of slaves. The legal consensus amongst the scholars (both classical and current) is that the trajectory that was set by the Quran and Sunnah was to eventually abolish the institution altogether. Contemporary scholars use this argument to argue for why re-instituting slavery is illegal in our current times. It's the argument that they use against ISIS for example.

The Quran does not command us to enslave, it merely regulates the slavery that was pre-existing in Arabia at the time of revelation. That's also a very important distinction to keep in mind.

Then there's the whole issue of how Muslims actually approach the Qur'an which many non-Muslims do not seem to understand.

This is generally a much deeper intellectual debate than you're making it seem and there are a lot of different issues to consider. You haven't even grasped the basics.

1) the Quran is NOT a legal book! It's not a collection of rulings. It's primarily a book of spiritual guidance although it does have SOME clear injunctions, but it cannot be used as a law book per se. There are entire sciences that are developed for the purpose of deriving legal rulings. I can't, as a Muslim, just pick up the Qur'an, read a verse and then derive a ruling from that verse on my own.

2) the Quran is not the only source of law and it's not even the only source of revelation (The authentic Sunnah is also part of revelation). In order to derive legal rulings, Muslim jurists have to know the context of the revealed texts (Asbaab al-Nuzool), the principles of legislation (usool al-Fiqh), they also have to know and understand the specific context of the person/people to whom those legal rulings are to apply. Even the local culture and customs have to be considered ('Urf). Some things that are deemed permissible in Indonesia, could be impermissible in, say, Morocco or Saudi Arabia. The point that I'm trying to make is that in order to derive rulings in Islam, you have to either be a trained jurist or you have to defer to a trained jurist.

3) as I've illustrated, the law making process is extremely complex and not as simple as looking up a verse in the Qur'an and voila! you have your legal ruling:mjlol:


That's the first issue that you need to understand.

Secondly, wrt slavery in specific, you need to differentiate between slavery as it was practised during the time of the Prophet pbuh and the East African slave trade. Those were completely different eras and the institutions were also completely different (separated by centuries). Compared to how slavery was being practised around the globe at the time of the Prophet pbuh, the former actually improved the conditions of slaves, encouraged the freeing of slaves and placed strong restrictions on who could even be considered a slave.

The latter (East African slave trade) actually breaks several Islamic laws. Raiding innocent people for the purpose of acquiring slaves is illegal, mutilating human bodies (castration, branding etc) is strictly prohibited, etc.

I wish I could rep you again :mjcry:

@Datcrud Disappointed in you homie :mjcry:

Over and over again you gotta tell these idiots that what the Arabs are doing is not Islam.

I gotta tell people in my day to day that it isn't Islam.

OVER AND OVER AGAIN. "Well the Muslims ke-"

NO, YOU IGNORANT IDIOT! The Quran, like the other Abrahamic religious text

1) has historical context

2)Doesn't condone wanton violence

3)Was working on removing slavery over a period of time so that GENERATIONS wouldn't do it.

"But the Mooslims :mjgrin:"

Bah, @Karbaash You're a better man than I when it comes to this stuff. Folks get stuck on stupid and wonder why no blessings come their way :francis:

Nothing in the Quran condones this.

*Lemme cherry pick parts of the Quran that prove my point* ass brehs :palm:
 

The Odum of Ala Igbo

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I don't usually answer you dumb smart nikkas but I'm bored right now :russ:

For one, slavery in North Africa predates Islam by millennia. Islam did not introduce slavery to the world, it merely regulated what was already a pre-existing institution (more on that later). To suggest that these Libyan bandits, who aside from enslaving mostly Muslim Africans also kidnap people, torture them and extort money from their relatives, are being driven by religious injunctions instead of basic opportunism is not only intellectually dishonest, it's also downright retarded:russ:


As for the quote that you posted, its an extremely biased, decontextualized "analysis" of those verses :mjlol:

They were revealed at a time when you could literally kidnap a random person in the desert and sell that person into slavery. You could even be enslaved if you owed a debt that you couldn't repay. You could also be born into slavery. Within that context, the verses actually restrict the conditions under which one could become enslaved to such a degree that only captives of war (regardless of race) could become slaves. 1400+ years ago, that was actually quite an improvement :yeshrug:


Compare that to how slavery was practised elsewhere in the world :francis:

Slaves also had rights. They received a salary, could eventually buy their freedom, their offspring were born free, you could not beat them etc. They were more like servants than "slaves" in the Western understanding of that word.

Some "slaves" even became kings (the Mamluk dynasty in Egypt was established by European slaves. "Mamluk" literally means "someone who is owned" i.e property). Some of the most renowned scholars were slaves. It was a completely different system to what we know in the West.

Also, the first verse is addressed to Muslims in general and is not restricted to the Prophet (pbuh).

Aside from that, there are plenty of verses that strongly encourage the freeing of slaves and there are many sins for which the atonement is freeing of slaves. The legal consensus amongst the scholars (both classical and current) is that the trajectory that was set by the Quran and Sunnah was to eventually abolish the institution altogether. Contemporary scholars use this argument to argue for why re-instituting slavery is illegal in our current times. It's the argument that they use against ISIS for example.

The Quran does not command us to enslave, it merely regulates the slavery that was pre-existing in Arabia at the time of revelation. That's also a very important distinction to keep in mind.

Then there's the whole issue of how Muslims actually approach the Qur'an which many non-Muslims do not seem to understand.

This is generally a much deeper intellectual debate than you're making it seem and there are a lot of different issues to consider. You haven't even grasped the basics.

1) the Quran is NOT a legal book! It's not a collection of rulings. It's primarily a book of spiritual guidance although it does have SOME clear injunctions, but it cannot be used as a law book per se. There are entire sciences that are developed for the purpose of deriving legal rulings. I can't, as a Muslim, just pick up the Qur'an, read a verse and then derive a ruling from that verse on my own.

2) the Quran is not the only source of law and it's not even the only source of revelation (The authentic Sunnah is also part of revelation). In order to derive legal rulings, Muslim jurists have to know the context of the revealed texts (Asbaab al-Nuzool), the principles of legislation (usool al-Fiqh), they also have to know and understand the specific context of the person/people to whom those legal rulings are to apply. Even the local culture and customs have to be considered ('Urf). Some things that are deemed permissible in Indonesia, could be impermissible in, say, Morocco or Saudi Arabia. The point that I'm trying to make is that in order to derive rulings in Islam, you have to either be a trained jurist or you have to defer to a trained jurist.

3) as I've illustrated, the law making process is extremely complex and not as simple as looking up a verse in the Qur'an and voila! you have your legal ruling:mjlol:


That's the first issue that you need to understand.

Secondly, wrt slavery in specific, you need to differentiate between slavery as it was practised during the time of the Prophet pbuh and the East African slave trade. Those were completely different eras and the institutions were also completely different (separated by centuries). Compared to how slavery was being practised around the globe at the time of the Prophet pbuh, the former actually improved the conditions of slaves, encouraged the freeing of slaves and placed strong restrictions on who could even be considered a slave.

The latter (East African slave trade) actually breaks several Islamic laws. Raiding innocent people for the purpose of acquiring slaves is illegal, mutilating human bodies (castration, branding etc) is strictly prohibited, etc.
I don't usually answer you dumb smart nikkas but I'm bored right now :russ:

For one, slavery in North Africa predates Islam by millennia. Islam did not introduce slavery to the world, it merely regulated what was already a pre-existing institution (more on that later). To suggest that these Libyan bandits, who aside from enslaving mostly Muslim Africans also kidnap people, torture them and extort money from their relatives, are being driven by religious injunctions instead of basic opportunism is not only intellectually dishonest, it's also downright retarded:russ:


As for the quote that you posted, its an extremely biased, decontextualized "analysis" of those verses :mjlol:

They were revealed at a time when you could literally kidnap a random person in the desert and sell that person into slavery. You could even be enslaved if you owed a debt that you couldn't repay. You could also be born into slavery. Within that context, the verses actually restrict the conditions under which one could become enslaved to such a degree that only captives of war (regardless of race) could become slaves. 1400+ years ago, that was actually quite an improvement :yeshrug:


Compare that to how slavery was practised elsewhere in the world :francis:

Slaves also had rights. They received a salary, could eventually buy their freedom, their offspring were born free, you could not beat them etc. They were more like servants than "slaves" in the Western understanding of that word.

Some "slaves" even became kings (the Mamluk dynasty in Egypt was established by European slaves. "Mamluk" literally means "someone who is owned" i.e property). Some of the most renowned scholars were slaves. It was a completely different system to what we know in the West.

Also, the first verse is addressed to Muslims in general and is not restricted to the Prophet (pbuh).

Aside from that, there are plenty of verses that strongly encourage the freeing of slaves and there are many sins for which the atonement is freeing of slaves. The legal consensus amongst the scholars (both classical and current) is that the trajectory that was set by the Quran and Sunnah was to eventually abolish the institution altogether. Contemporary scholars use this argument to argue for why re-instituting slavery is illegal in our current times. It's the argument that they use against ISIS for example.

The Quran does not command us to enslave, it merely regulates the slavery that was pre-existing in Arabia at the time of revelation. That's also a very important distinction to keep in mind.

Then there's the whole issue of how Muslims actually approach the Qur'an which many non-Muslims do not seem to understand.

This is generally a much deeper intellectual debate than you're making it seem and there are a lot of different issues to consider. You haven't even grasped the basics.

1) the Quran is NOT a legal book! It's not a collection of rulings. It's primarily a book of spiritual guidance although it does have SOME clear injunctions, but it cannot be used as a law book per se. There are entire sciences that are developed for the purpose of deriving legal rulings. I can't, as a Muslim, just pick up the Qur'an, read a verse and then derive a ruling from that verse on my own.

2) the Quran is not the only source of law and it's not even the only source of revelation (The authentic Sunnah is also part of revelation). In order to derive legal rulings, Muslim jurists have to know the context of the revealed texts (Asbaab al-Nuzool), the principles of legislation (usool al-Fiqh), they also have to know and understand the specific context of the person/people to whom those legal rulings are to apply. Even the local culture and customs have to be considered ('Urf). Some things that are deemed permissible in Indonesia, could be impermissible in, say, Morocco or Saudi Arabia. The point that I'm trying to make is that in order to derive rulings in Islam, you have to either be a trained jurist or you have to defer to a trained jurist.

3) as I've illustrated, the law making process is extremely complex and not as simple as looking up a verse in the Qur'an and voila! you have your legal ruling:mjlol:


That's the first issue that you need to understand.

Secondly, wrt slavery in specific, you need to differentiate between slavery as it was practised during the time of the Prophet pbuh and the East African slave trade. Those were completely different eras and the institutions were also completely different (separated by centuries). Compared to how slavery was being practised around the globe at the time of the Prophet pbuh, the former actually improved the conditions of slaves, encouraged the freeing of slaves and placed strong restrictions on who could even be considered a slave.

The latter (East African slave trade) actually breaks several Islamic laws. Raiding innocent people for the purpose of acquiring slaves is illegal, mutilating human bodies (castration, branding etc) is strictly prohibited, etc.

If you regulate a pre-existing activity (slavery) without banning it - you provide tacit consent to its existence.

Rather than Islam banning slavery, you're arguing (in part) that it was better than chattel slavery practiced elsewhere?
:francis::francis::francis::francis::francis::francis::francis::francis:

:picard:
:hubie:
 

The Odum of Ala Igbo

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Example of tacit consent in law-making:
A municipal by-law prevents the consumption of alcohol before 10 AM in bars. However, it continues to allow bars to exist within its city limits. It collects taxes on bars. Allows bars to hire employees etc. etc.

Therefore, that municipality is tacitly (if not explicitly) consenting to the existence of alcoholic consumption within bars.
:francis:

It's analogous to someone saying, "Islam regulating slavery...made it better" - thus, you're affirming that Islam gave tacit consent to that activity.

A better argument would be that Muhammad freed slaves in Arabia. However, that argument is flawed given that Islam (if we do believe the Angel Jibril gave Muhammad the Quran) doesn't ban slavery outright
 

ChatGPT-5

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Berber is a lose collectivization of ethnic confederations. It's not really a race.

Tuaregs for instance, are black Berbers. But not all Berbers are Tuaregs.


Stop claiming North African Arabs as black Africans. All this fake solidarity with Libya and Morocco...

Being on the continent of Africa doesn't make you BLACK African.
No. Berbers are a race. I've already linked their haplogroups numerous times. I dont need to be a broken record trying to educate people on the differences via science.
 

Concerning VIolence

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No. Berbers are a race. I've already linked their haplogroups numerous times. I dont need to be a broken record trying to educate people on the differences via science.

This Berber is black?


Berber-Lead-Image-Space-1100x770.jpg
 

Karb

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If you regulate a pre-existing activity (slavery) without banning it - you provide tacit consent to its existence.

Rather than Islam banning slavery, you're arguing (in part) that it was better than chattel slavery practiced elsewhere?
:francis::francis::francis::francis::francis::francis::francis::francis:

:picard:
:hubie:

Or it could be a way of phasing it out. Only captives of war could become enslaved, their general conditions were drastically improved and many provisions for their emancipation were put in place.

This is the general understanding of actual Muslim jurists - classical as well as current - so there's no debate. :yeshrug:

Either way, this has nothing to do with the East African slave trade (which was illegal according to Islamic law) or Libya :francis:
 

The Odum of Ala Igbo

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Or it could be a way of phasing it out. Only captives of war could become enslaved, their general conditions were drastically improved and many provisions for their emancipation were put in place.

This is the general understanding of actual Muslim jurists - classical as well as current - so there's no debate. :yeshrug:

Either way, this has nothing to do with the East African slave trade (which was illegal according to Islamic law) or Libya :francis:

:francis:
 
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