Your first statement defies common sense. If Islamic rule, with all of its warts and imperfects (which I dont deny in the least bit) was never, never, never as bad as even Czarist pogroms let alone the Holocaust, how could you draw an equivalence between the two, or fail to distinguish them? Whats the basis for that statement? Discrimination is on the same level as mass genocide? Really bruh?
Ill tell you while its outlandish. Because when the Jews were getting chased, stripped, beaten and killed across Europe, Arabs were making deals with them:
Faisal–Weizmann Agreement - Wikipedia
Jews were not subjected to attacks as soon as they began arriving in the Holy Land at the turn of the century, but rather violence broke out once the Zionist plan for displacing the Arabs became known. Arabs would sell land to Jews.
Having dumped its Jewish problem on to the laps of the Arabs, of fukking course, Europe can now turn around with that look and be all lovey dovey
Meanwhile, the Arabs lost Palestine, were defeated in wars of necessity, were betrayed by the European powers and subjected to imperial control
How could you compare the Jewish livelihood in Europe today with that of the Islamic world (where their presence is unfortunately negligble) without taking into account the partition of Palestine, and the effects of that original sin on where we are today
Its clear that you have a predetermined hatred of Arabs and Muslims, and are insisting on holding onto any position which confirms those biases, despite the lack of logic or consistency.