GetInTheTruck
Member
Hmm. Not entirely sure. The only way that particular theory could work is if Indo-Europeans migrated out of India. I think that the migration did occur into India and that previously most of India was under the auspices of Dravidians and Austro-Asiatic speakers.
I don't really buy into the out of India theories because they are too indo-centric, but if the aryans were indeed from outside the subcontinent originally, the Vedas would say so. But they don't. I think that's a valid point. Also, sanskrit is the oldest indo-european language and is only preserved in India. I think the modern genetic studies show that Indians are descended from two distinct ancient populations that coalesced over time. Then they broke off into caste divisions and then those groups became endogomous into the present day.