Rather than comparing to some irrelevant time period 200 years ago, would you say that social media itself has led the world to be more chaotic or less? Obviously in 200 years a huge amount of shyt has changed, no reasonable person would claim that you can measure the effect of social media by comparing the environment now to the environment in 1850, so why not compare to the era immediately previously with objective evidence - as I did when pointing out that democratic institutions are measurably regressing on every continent in real time.
And in terms of current chaos there are plenty of civil wars and assassinations happening right now, which is also driving the pro-fascism argument. "Let the fascists dominate because they rule with an iron fist and maintain control". Bootlickers claim Russia/India/Egypt/Brazil/Phillippines are "more stable" under violent nationalist rule than they were immediately before the fascists took control (most minority groups in those countries would say you're full of shyt), but that isn't a great measure of success.
That's exactly how the chaos of social media breeds fascism - people use social media to depict the world as out of control, "Look at all these riots! Look at all this violence! Look at all this crime!" and then propose that only a fascist could truly bring back control.
I don't see even the barest basis of support that MSM enhanced extremism more than social media does.
Well, here is one objective approach:
Social Media Use Is Linked to a Fear of Crime
And yet the promotion of misinformation on social media is orders of magnitudes worse, due to inherent nature of social media. I don't know how you can even begin to deny that.
False news travels 6 times faster on Twitter than truthful news
And yet the degree of nuance in the average news story is order of magnitude deeper than the nuance in a viral Tweet or facebook meme. Again, I have trouble believing that you don't know that.
Yet they did it for the exact same reason - because they realized they were being hypocritical to their ideals. The primary difference is that in Britain the driving force behind the abolitionist movement were religious ideals (Evangelical Christians pointing out that all persons were equal under God and thus it was hypocritical to treat Black persons as lesser) whereas in the USA the abolitionist movement was a meld of religious and secular ideals (Mennonites and Quakers pushing the religious equality argument while secular abolitionists pushed the political one).
One of the main reasons slavery lasted as long as it did in the USA was because inequality was already protected in official language at multiple levels and the slavers fell back on those previous agreements and statements. If we had had it your way, affirmation of slavery would have been even more resolutely established into the Constitution and other legal documents from the beginning and there would have been even less of a common narrative from which to attack it.