Koichos
Pro
No, because that would be grammatically impossible and, in any case, it is silly to exegete a translation! מֵאֵת mé'ét (by way of, by means of) is the preposition chain that establishes apposition between the Creator's titles:One Lord standing on Earth while another Lord is in heaven?
וַייָ הִמְטִיר עַל־סְדֹם וְעַל־עֲמֹרָה גָּפְרִית וָאֵשׁ מֵאֵת יְיָ מִן־הַשָּׁמָֽיִם׃
Also, it is a common feature of Scriptural literary prose for a speaker (not only God) to refer to himself in the 3rd person:
in B'réshît 4:23, Lemech ben M'tusha'él refers to his two wives, 'Adah and Tzillah, as נְשֵׁי לֶֽמֶךְ n'shei lemech ('Lemech's wives') rather than נָשַׁי nashai ('my wives');
in M'lachîm, Part I, 1:33, King Davîd tells Tzadok, Natan and B'nayahu to take with them עַבְדֵי אֲדֹנֵיכֶם 'avdei adoneichem ('your master's servants') rather than עֲבָדַי 'avadai ('my servants'); and
in Êstér 8:8, Aḥash'vérosh, speaking to Êstér and her cousin Mordochai, says בְּשֵׁם הַמֶּֽלֶךְ b'shém hamelech ('in the king's name') rather than בִּשְׁמִי bish'mi ('in my name'); etc., etc., etc.
The Hebrew word דָּבָר davar (a word) literally means a 'thing' and is intrinsically inanimate and, by extension, a 'matter' or even a 'message' (in context). Thus, it was God's message that came to 'Avram, not just one 'word'.Who is the word? The "logos"?
The logos concept only makes sense in pagan Greek; it just makes nonsense if you try to write it in Hebrew.
Of course it can. However, in the T'na"ch it cannot.I think every instance where Abraham had an interaction with "God", I think most people would be surprised that that "God" is not who they think it is.
Same for Moses.
In which, could possibly extend to all interactions w/ "God" in the OT.